Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a labor unit is admitting a client who reports painful contractions. The nurse determines that the contractions have a duration of 1 minute and a frequency of 3 minutes. The nurse obtains the following vital signs: fetal heart rate 130/min, maternal heart rate 128/min, and maternal blood pressure 92/54 mm Hg. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to take?

• A. Notify the provider of the findings.
• B. Position the client with one hip elevated.
• C. Ask the client if she needs pain medication.
• D. Have the client void.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse in this situation is to position the client with one hip elevated. This position can help improve blood flow to the placenta and stabilize blood pressure, which is crucial for both the client and the fetus during labor. It can also help optimize fetal oxygenation by improving circulation. Notifying the provider of the findings may be necessary, but ensuring proper positioning of the client takes precedence to address the immediate physiological needs. Asking the client about pain medication or having the client void are important interventions but are not the priority in this scenario where the client is experiencing painful contractions and has low blood pressure.

2. When caring for a client in labor, which of the following infections can be treated during labor or immediately following birth? (Select all that apply)

• A. Gonorrhea
• B. Chlamydia
• C. HIV
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Infections such as gonorrhea, chlamydia, and HIV can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. It is crucial to identify and treat these infections promptly to reduce the risk of vertical transmission to the infant. Therefore, all the given options are correct as they can be treated during labor or immediately following birth to prevent transmission to the newborn. Other choices are incorrect because only gonorrhea, chlamydia, and HIV can be effectively treated during labor or immediately after birth to prevent vertical transmission.

3. During the admission assessment of a newborn, which anatomical landmark should be used for measuring the newborn's chest circumference?

• A. Sternal notch
• B. Nipple line
• C. Xiphoid process
• D. Fifth intercostal space

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When measuring a newborn's chest circumference, the appropriate anatomical landmark to use is the nipple line. This point is consistent and allows for accurate and standardized measurements across all newborn assessments. The sternal notch is not typically used for chest circumference measurements in newborns. The xiphoid process is located at the lower end of the sternum and is not an appropriate landmark for chest circumference measurement. The fifth intercostal space is typically used for locating the point of maximal impulse (PMI) during cardiac assessments, not for measuring chest circumference.

4. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
• C. Obtain a prescription for IV oxytocin.
• D. Administer methylergonovine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.

5. A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. An IUD should be replaced annually during a pelvic exam.
• B. I cannot get an IUD until after I've had a child.
• C. I should plan on regaining fertility 5 months after the IUD is removed.
• D. I will check to ensure the strings of the IUD are still present after my periods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Checking for the presence of IUD strings after each period is crucial to ensure the IUD is correctly positioned and functioning. This practice helps in confirming the effectiveness of the contraceptive method and timely detection of any displacement or issues with the IUD. Choice A is incorrect as IUDs have varying durations of effectiveness, but they do not need to be replaced annually as a routine. Choice B is incorrect as women can get an IUD even if they haven't had a child. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns shortly after IUD removal, not necessarily after a specific timeframe like 5 months.

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