Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent is being taught about levonorgestrel contraception by a school nurse. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should take the medication within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse.
• B. Do not take this medication if you are on an oral contraceptive.
• C. If you do not start your period within 5 days of taking this medication, you will need a pregnancy test.
• D. One dose of this medication will prevent pregnancy for 14 days after taking it.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive that works by inhibiting ovulation to prevent conception. It is most effective when taken as soon as possible within 72 hours following unprotected sexual intercourse. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the adolescent to take the medication promptly to maximize its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because levonorgestrel can be used even if the individual is on oral contraceptives. Choice C is incorrect as the efficacy of levonorgestrel is not determined by the onset of menstruation. Choice D is incorrect because levonorgestrel is a single-dose emergency contraceptive and does not provide protection for 14 days after ingestion.

2. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

3. A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
• B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
• C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
• D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is essential for a client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus to continue taking insulin as prescribed even if they experience nausea and vomiting. This is crucial to prevent fluctuations in blood glucose levels that could lead to serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because the fasting blood glucose target for pregnant women with diabetes is usually lower. Choice B is incorrect as engaging in exercise when blood glucose is high is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding exercise is not the appropriate approach when blood glucose levels are elevated.

4. A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs.
• B. A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse.
• C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne.
• D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This statement demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of proper condom use to maximize protection. Choice B is incorrect because a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure contraceptive effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in some cases. Choice D is incorrect because a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.

5. A newborn is small for gestational age (SGA). Which of the following findings is associated with this condition?

• A. Moist skin
• B. Protruding abdomen
• C. Gray umbilical cord
• D. Wide skull sutures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Wide skull sutures are a common finding in newborns who are small for gestational age (SGA) due to reduced intrauterine growth. This occurs because the skull bones do not grow at the same rate as the brain, leading to wider sutures. Moist skin, a protruding abdomen, and a gray umbilical cord are not typically associated with being small for gestational age.

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