ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased platelet count
- B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. Decreased megakaryocytes
- D. Increased WBC
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.
2. A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?
- A. Cephalic
- B. Transverse
- C. Posterior
- D. Frank breech
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Fetal heart tones above the umbilicus at midline are indicative of a breech presentation, specifically a frank breech position. In a frank breech position, the baby's buttocks are presenting first, which aligns with the fetal heart tones being above the umbilicus. This position indicates that the baby is not in the normal head-down position for birth, which can impact the delivery process and may require specific interventions. Cephalic presentation (Choice A) is the normal head-down position for birth, transverse lie (Choice B) is when the baby is positioned horizontally in the uterus, and posterior position (Choice C) refers to the baby's back being positioned towards the mother's back.
3. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
- B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
- C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
- D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.
4. During Leopold maneuvers on a client in labor, which technique should be used by the nurse to identify the fetal lie?
- A. Apply palms of both hands to sides of the uterus
- B. Palpate the fundus of the uterus
- C. Grasp the lower uterine segment between thumb and fingers
- D. Stand facing the client's feet with fingertips outlining cephalic prominence
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Palpating the fundus of the uterus during Leopold maneuvers is crucial to identify the fetal lie. This technique allows the nurse to determine the position of the baby's back and locate the fetal heart sounds, aiding in assessing the fetal lie. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to identifying the fetal lie during Leopold maneuvers. Applying palms to the sides of the uterus or grasping the lower uterine segment do not provide the necessary information about the fetal lie. Standing facing the client's feet and outlining cephalic prominence is more related to assessing the fetal presentation, not the fetal lie.
5. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
- A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
- B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
- C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
- D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access