ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?
- A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
- B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
- C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
- D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.
2. What is the most appropriate statement for a nurse to make to a client who has recently experienced a perinatal death?
- A. It must be a comfort to know you have another child.
- B. I'm sad for you.
- C. There is usually something wrong with the baby.
- D. You will always have an angel in heaven.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Option B, 'I'm sad for you,' is the most appropriate response for the nurse to make to the client who has experienced a perinatal death. This statement conveys empathy and compassion, acknowledging the client's grief and validating their emotions. It opens the door for the client to express their feelings and facilitates further communication and support from the nurse. Choices A, C, and D are not appropriate in this context. Choice A may come across as dismissive of the client's grief by redirecting the focus to another child. Choice C suggests blame or fault, which is not helpful or accurate in most cases of perinatal death. Choice D, while well-intentioned, may not be comforting to all clients and could impose a specific belief system on the client's experience.
3. A client who is 2 hours postpartum is in the taking-hold phase. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement during this phase of postpartum behavioral adjustment?
- A. Discuss contraceptive options with the client and her partner.
- B. Repeat information to ensure client understanding.
- C. Listen to the client and her partner as they reflect upon the birth experience.
- D. Demonstrate to the client how to perform a newborn bath.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the taking-hold phase of postpartum behavioral adjustment, the new mother starts taking a stronger interest in her new role as a mother. This phase involves the mother focusing on the care of her newborn and acquiring parenting skills. Demonstrating how to perform a newborn bath is an appropriate intervention during this phase as it helps the mother actively engage in caring for her baby, which aligns with the developmental tasks of this phase. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically address the mother's need to actively engage in caring for her newborn during the taking-hold phase. Discussing contraceptive options, repeating information, and listening to reflections on the birth experience are more relevant to other phases of postpartum adjustment.
4. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
- B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
- C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
- D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.
5. After an amniotomy, what is the priority nursing action?
- A. Observe color and consistency of fluid
- B. Assess the fetal heart rate pattern
- C. Assess the client's temperature
- D. Evaluate the client for the presence of chills and increased uterine tenderness using palpation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After an amniotomy, the priority nursing action is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of fetal distress, as changes in the fetal heart rate could indicate potential complications related to the procedure. Observing the color and consistency of the fluid (Choice A) is important but not the priority over assessing fetal well-being. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice C) and evaluating the client for chills and increased uterine tenderness (Choice D) are not immediate priorities following an amniotomy.
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