ATI RN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider in the emergency department is caring for a client who comes to the emergency department reporting severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the provider the presence of intra-abdominal bleeding?
- A. Chvostek's sign
- B. Cullen's sign
- C. Chadwick's sign
- D. Goodell's sign
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cullen's sign is the presence of periumbilical ecchymosis indicating intra-abdominal bleeding, which can be associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Chvostek's sign is a facial spasm related to hypocalcemia. Chadwick's sign is a bluish discoloration of the cervix, vagina, and labia during early pregnancy. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix in early pregnancy.
2. A client is being assessed for postpartum infection. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client requires further evaluation for endometritis?
- A. Localized area of breast tenderness
- B. Pelvic pain
- C. Vaginal discharge with foul odor
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Pelvic pain is a common symptom of endometritis, which is an infection of the uterine lining. It is an important finding that warrants further evaluation. Localized area of breast tenderness may indicate mastitis, vaginal discharge with a foul odor could suggest a vaginal infection, and hematuria points towards a urinary tract issue, but they are not specific to endometritis.
3. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?
- A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
- B. This could initiate preterm labor.
- C. This could result in profound bleeding.
- D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.
4. A client who is 4 hours postpartum following a vaginal delivery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?
- A. Saturated perineal pad in 30 minutes
- B. Deep tendon reflexes 4+
- C. Fundus at the level of the umbilicus
- D. Approximated edges of episiotomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client who is 4 hours postpartum, a saturated perineal pad within 30 minutes is a priority finding as it may indicate excessive postpartum bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as hypovolemic shock. Deep tendon reflexes being 4+ is within normal limits postpartum. The fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding at this time frame, indicating proper involution of the uterus. Approximated edges of an episiotomy suggest proper healing.
5. When reviewing the arterial blood gas values for a client, a nurse notes a pH of 7.32, PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L. What does this indicate about the acid-base balance?
- A. Respiratory acidosis
- B. Respiratory alkalosis
- C. Metabolic acidosis
- D. Metabolic alkalosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The given values suggest respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the pH is low (<7.35), PaCO2 is high (>45 mm Hg), and the HCO3 is normal or slightly elevated. In this scenario, the low pH (7.32) and high PaCO2 (48 mm Hg) indicate respiratory acidosis, where there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to acidification of the body fluids.
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