Nursing Elites

1. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Acarbose
• B. Repaglinide
• C. Glyburide
• D. Glipizide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

2. A client who was admitted to the maternity unit at 38 weeks of gestation and who is experiencing polyhydramnios is found to have which of the following?

• A. The client is carrying more than one fetus
• B. There is an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid
• C. An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is present
• D. The fetus is likely to have a congenital anomaly, be growth restricted, or demonstrate fetal distress during labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Polyhydramnios refers to the presence of an excessive amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. This condition can result from various causes, such as maternal diabetes, fetal anomalies, or genetic disorders. It can lead to complications during pregnancy and delivery, such as preterm labor, placental abruption, or fetal malpresentation. Understanding this diagnosis is crucial for providing appropriate care and monitoring to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.

3. A nurse in an antepartum unit is triaging clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who is at 38 weeks of gestation and reports a cough and fever
• B. A client who has missed a period and reports vaginal spotting
• C. A client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports nausea and vomiting
• D. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and reports of painless vaginal bleeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale:

4. A client with severe preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate IV at 2 g/hr. Which of the following findings indicates that it is safe to continue the infusion?

• A. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes
• B. Respiratory rate of 16/min
• C. Urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours
• D. Heart rate of 56/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 16/min within the normal range is an essential parameter to monitor when administering magnesium sulfate, as respiratory depression is a potential adverse effect. Diminished deep-tendon reflexes may indicate magnesium toxicity, warranting immediate intervention. A urine output of 50 mL in 4 hours is below the expected amount, suggesting decreased kidney perfusion, which can be exacerbated by magnesium sulfate. A heart rate of 56/min is bradycardic and may indicate magnesium toxicity, requiring assessment and possible discontinuation of the infusion.

5. A newborn's mother is positive for the hepatitis B surface antigen. Which of the following should the infant receive?

• A. Hepatitis B immune globulin at 1 week followed by hepatitis B vaccine monthly for 6 months
• B. Hepatitis B vaccine monthly until the newborn tests negative for the hepatitis B surface antigen
• C. Hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hr of birth
• D. Hepatitis B vaccine at 24 hr followed by hepatitis B immune globulin every 12 hr for 3 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario where a newborn's mother is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen, the infant should receive both hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. This is crucial to provide passive and active immunity against the Hepatitis B virus. Hepatitis B immune globulin provides immediate protection by giving passive immunity, while the vaccine stimulates active immunity in the infant. Administering both within 12 hours of birth is important to prevent vertical transmission of the virus.

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