Nursing Elites

1. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

2. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) may present with which of the following manifestations? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

• A. Severe dyspnea
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure (ARF), the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to respiratory distress. Symptoms of ARF typically include severe dyspnea (difficulty breathing), decreased level of consciousness due to hypoxia, and headache from inadequate oxygenation to the brain. Nausea is not a typical manifestation of ARF and would not be expected in this condition.

3. A client is being assessed for postpartum infection. Which of the following findings should indicate to the healthcare provider that the client requires further evaluation for endometritis?

• A. Localized area of breast tenderness
• B. Pelvic pain
• C. Vaginal discharge with foul odor
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pelvic pain is a common symptom of endometritis, which is an infection of the uterine lining. It is an important finding that warrants further evaluation. Localized area of breast tenderness may indicate mastitis, vaginal discharge with a foul odor could suggest a vaginal infection, and hematuria points towards a urinary tract issue, but they are not specific to endometritis.

4. A client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth has a history of thromboembolic disease. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Apply warm, moist heat to the client's lower extremities.
• B. Massage the client's posterior lower legs.
• C. Place pillows under the client's knees when resting in bed.
• D. Have the client ambulate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a cesarean birth with a history of thromboembolic disease is to have the client ambulate. Early ambulation is crucial in preventing complications such as deep vein thrombosis in postpartum clients. Applying warm, moist heat, massaging the legs, or placing pillows under the knees do not directly address the risk of thromboembolic disease in this scenario.

5. When admitting a client at 33 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of placenta previa, which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Monitor vaginal bleeding
• B. Administer glucocorticoids
• C. Insert an IV catheter
• D. Apply an external fetal monitor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placenta previa is a condition where the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to potential bleeding. When admitting a client with placenta previa, the priority is to assess the fetal well-being. Applying an external fetal monitor helps in continuous monitoring of the fetal heart rate and ensures timely detection of any distress or changes in the fetal status, which is crucial in managing this condition. While monitoring vaginal bleeding is important, identifying fetal well-being takes precedence in this situation.

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