Nursing Elites

1. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients on an intrapartum unit. Which of the following findings should be reported to the provider immediately?

• A. A tearful client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and is experiencing irregular, frequent contractions
• B. A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and receiving terbutaline reports fine tremors
• C. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia has 2+ proteinuria and 2+ patellar reflexes
• D. A client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reports epigastric pain and an unresolved headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is a client who has a diagnosis of preeclampsia reporting epigastric pain and an unresolved headache. These symptoms indicate severe preeclampsia, which requires immediate medical attention due to the potential risks of complications such as HELLP syndrome or eclampsia. The other options describe concerning situations but do not represent immediate life-threatening conditions like those seen in severe preeclampsia.

3. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation and in early labor with ruptured membranes has an oral temperature of 38.9�C (102�F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours
• B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly
• C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid
• D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a pregnant woman with a temperature of 38.9�C (102�F) in early labor with ruptured membranes, assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid is crucial. Foul-smelling or malodorous amniotic fluid could indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which poses risks to both the woman and the fetus. This assessment can help in determining if an infection is present and prompt appropriate interventions. Rechecking the temperature, administering glucocorticoids, or preparing for an emergency cesarean section are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?

• A. Hydrops fetalis
• B. Hypobilirubinemia
• C. Biliary atresia
• D. Transient clotting difficulties

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease has arterial blood gas values being reviewed by a nurse. Which of the following sets of values should the nurse expect?

• A. pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg
• B. pH 7.30, HCO3- 26 mEq/L, PaCO2 50 mm Hg
• C. pH 7.50, HCO3- 20 mEq/L, PaCO2 32 mm Hg
• D. pH 7.55, HCO3- 30 mEq/L, PaCO2 31 mm Hg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, metabolic acidosis is common due to impaired kidney function leading to reduced bicarbonate excretion. The correct values indicating metabolic acidosis in this scenario are a low pH (acidosis), low bicarbonate (HCO3-) level, and low PaCO2 (compensation through respiratory alkalosis). Therefore, the expected values for a client with chronic kidney disease would be pH 7.25, HCO3- 19 mEq/L, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, as depicted in choice A.

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