Nursing Elites

1. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

2. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Acarbose
• B. Repaglinide
• C. Glyburide
• D. Glipizide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has respiratory acidosis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. HCO3- 30 mEq/L
• B. PaCO2 50 mm Hg
• C. pH 7.45
• D. Potassium 3.3 mEq/L

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In respiratory acidosis, the primary disturbance is an increase in PaCO2 levels above the normal range of 35-45 mm Hg. Option B, PaCO2 50 mm Hg, indicates an elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide, which is consistent with respiratory acidosis. Options A, C, and D are not directly indicative of respiratory acidosis. HCO3- (Option A) is more related to metabolic acidosis or alkalosis, pH (Option C) is within the normal range indicating no acid-base imbalance, and potassium (Option D) levels are not specific to respiratory acidosis.

4. A newborn's mother is positive for the hepatitis B surface antigen. Which of the following should the infant receive?

• A. Hepatitis B immune globulin at 1 week followed by hepatitis B vaccine monthly for 6 months
• B. Hepatitis B vaccine monthly until the newborn tests negative for the hepatitis B surface antigen
• C. Hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hr of birth
• D. Hepatitis B vaccine at 24 hr followed by hepatitis B immune globulin every 12 hr for 3 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario where a newborn's mother is positive for hepatitis B surface antigen, the infant should receive both hepatitis B immune globulin and hepatitis B vaccine within 12 hours of birth. This is crucial to provide passive and active immunity against the Hepatitis B virus. Hepatitis B immune globulin provides immediate protection by giving passive immunity, while the vaccine stimulates active immunity in the infant. Administering both within 12 hours of birth is important to prevent vertical transmission of the virus.

5. A client with preterm labor is being admitted. The nurse anticipates a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications?

• A. Prostaglandin E2
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Methylergonovine
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin is used to delay premature labor by inhibiting uterine contractions. Prostaglandin E2, Methylergonovine, and Oxytocin are not typically used to manage preterm labor. Prostaglandin E2 can be used for cervical ripening and labor induction. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is used for labor induction and augmentation of labor in term pregnancies.

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