Nursing Elites

1. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

2. A client with preterm labor is being admitted. The nurse anticipates a prescription by the provider for which of the following medications?

• A. Prostaglandin E2
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Methylergonovine
• D. Oxytocin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Indomethacin is used to delay premature labor by inhibiting uterine contractions. Prostaglandin E2, Methylergonovine, and Oxytocin are not typically used to manage preterm labor. Prostaglandin E2 can be used for cervical ripening and labor induction. Methylergonovine is used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage. Oxytocin is used for labor induction and augmentation of labor in term pregnancies.

3. A client who was admitted to the maternity unit at 38 weeks of gestation and who is experiencing polyhydramnios is found to have which of the following?

• A. The client is carrying more than one fetus
• B. There is an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid
• C. An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is present
• D. The fetus is likely to have a congenital anomaly, be growth restricted, or demonstrate fetal distress during labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Polyhydramnios refers to the presence of an excessive amount of amniotic fluid around the fetus. This condition can result from various causes, such as maternal diabetes, fetal anomalies, or genetic disorders. It can lead to complications during pregnancy and delivery, such as preterm labor, placental abruption, or fetal malpresentation. Understanding this diagnosis is crucial for providing appropriate care and monitoring to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the fetus.

4. A client with acute respiratory failure (ARF) may present with which of the following manifestations? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

• A. Severe dyspnea
• B. Decreased level of consciousness
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acute respiratory failure (ARF), the body is not getting enough oxygen, leading to respiratory distress. Symptoms of ARF typically include severe dyspnea (difficulty breathing), decreased level of consciousness due to hypoxia, and headache from inadequate oxygenation to the brain. Nausea is not a typical manifestation of ARF and would not be expected in this condition.

5. When caring for a newborn with macrosomia born to a mother with diabetes mellitus, which newborn complication should the nurse prioritize care for?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Hypomagnesemia
• C. Hyperbilirubinemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In newborns of diabetic mothers with macrosomia, hypoglycemia is the priority focus of care due to the risk of developing low blood sugar levels after birth. Infants born to diabetic mothers are at risk of hypoglycemia because they have been exposed to high glucose levels in utero and produce high levels of insulin. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious complications if not promptly identified and managed, making it crucial for nurses to closely monitor blood glucose levels and provide necessary interventions to prevent adverse outcomes.

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