Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Reduced menstrual flow
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.

2. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

3. During an assessment of a newborn following a vacuum-assisted delivery, which of the following findings should the healthcare provider be informed about?

• A. Poor sucking
• B. Blue discoloration of the hands and feet
• C. Soft, edematous area on the scalp
• D. Facial edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Poor sucking in a newborn following a vacuum-assisted delivery could indicate potential issues with feeding or neurological function, which need to be promptly addressed by the healthcare provider to ensure the well-being of the infant. It is essential for the healthcare provider to be informed about poor sucking to facilitate further evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with vacuum-assisted delivery and do not pose immediate concerns that require urgent attention.

4. A client is receiving postpartum discharge teaching after being vaccinated for varicella due to lack of immunity. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

• A. I will need a second vaccination at my postpartum visit.
• B. I need a second vaccination at my postpartum visit.
• C. I was given the vaccine to protect myself from varicella.
• D. I will be tested in 3 months to confirm my immunity status.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client needs a second varicella vaccination at the postpartum visit to ensure immunity. Option A is incorrect as it implies a future need for a second vaccination without a clear action plan. Option C is incorrect as the varicella vaccine is primarily for the client's protection, not others. Option D is not the appropriate action as waiting to be tested for immunity delays the necessary second vaccination.

5. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

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