ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Reduced menstrual flow
- B. Breast tenderness
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.
2. When developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy, which of the following statements should be included?
- A. Consume three to four servings of dairy each day.
- B. Increase daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories.
- C. Limit daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram.
- D. Increase protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement to include when developing an educational program for adolescents about nutrition during the third trimester of pregnancy is to consume three to four servings of dairy each day. Adequate calcium intake is crucial for bone development during pregnancy and helps prevent complications related to inadequate calcium intake. Increasing daily caloric intake by 600 to 700 calories (Choice B) is not necessary during the third trimester; excessive caloric intake can lead to unnecessary weight gain. Limiting daily sodium intake to less than 1 gram (Choice C) is not suitable during pregnancy, as some sodium intake is necessary for maintaining fluid balance. Increasing protein intake to 40 to 50 grams per day (Choice D) is important during pregnancy, but the emphasis in this case should be on calcium from dairy sources for bone development.
3. A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Fetal heart rate 100/min
- B. Weakened uterine contractions
- C. Enhanced production of fetal lung surfactant
- D. Maternal blood glucose 63 mg/dL
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that works by relaxing the uterine muscles, leading to weakened uterine contractions. This effect helps to prevent preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should expect weakened uterine contractions in a client who has received terbutaline at 28 weeks of gestation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Terbutaline administration would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, enhance fetal lung surfactant production, or cause maternal hypoglycemia.
4. A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
- A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
- B. Threatened abortion
- C. Hydatidiform mole
- D. Preterm labor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of continued nausea, vomiting, scant prune-colored discharge, and a fundal height larger than expected at 4 months of gestation suggest a possible hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (choice A) typically presents with severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Threatened abortion (choice B) is characterized by vaginal bleeding with or without cramping but does not typically present with prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (choice D) manifests with regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes and can occur later in pregnancy.
5. A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Your milk will replace colostrum in about 10 days.
- B. Your breasts should feel firm after breastfeeding.
- C. Your newborn should urinate at least 10 times per day.
- D. Your newborn should appear content after each feeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that a baby who is sated will appear content after feedings. This indicates that the baby is effectively emptying the breasts during feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Breast milk replaces colostrum within a few days, not 10 days. B) Breasts feeling firm after breastfeeding may indicate engorgement or plugged ducts, not necessarily effective breastfeeding. C) While the frequency of urination is important, it is not directly related to effective breastfeeding.
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