ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Reduced menstrual flow
- B. Breast tenderness
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.
2. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
- B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
- C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
- D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.
3. A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. You will lie on your right side during the procedure.
- B. You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure.
- C. You should empty your bladder before the procedure.
- D. The test is performed to determine gestational age.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should advise the client to empty her bladder before an amniocentesis to minimize the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. This precaution helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure by reducing potential complications related to bladder puncture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lying on the right side, fasting for 24 hours, and determining gestational age are not relevant instructions for an amniocentesis procedure.
4. A client in a prenatal clinic is receiving education from a nurse and mentions, 'I don't like milk.' Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium?
- A. Dark green leafy vegetables
- B. Deep red or orange vegetables
- C. White bread and rice
- D. Meat, poultry, and fish
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dark green leafy vegetables are rich in calcium, making them an excellent alternative source for individuals who dislike or cannot consume dairy products. Calcium is crucial for bone health, particularly during pregnancy, to support the developing fetus and maintain the mother's bone strength. Therefore, recommending dark green leafy vegetables ensures the client receives an adequate intake of calcium despite not liking milk. Choice B, deep red or orange vegetables, are not typically high in calcium. Choice C, white bread and rice, are not significant sources of calcium. Choice D, meat, poultry, and fish, are good sources of protein but do not provide as much calcium as dark green leafy vegetables.
5. A healthcare professional is discussing risk factors for urinary tract infections with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following conditions should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
- A. Epidural anesthesia
- B. Urinary bladder catheterization
- C. Frequent pelvic examinations
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Urinary tract infections can be influenced by various factors. Epidural anesthesia, urinary bladder catheterization, and frequent pelvic examinations are all associated with an increased risk of UTIs. Epidural anesthesia can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, urinary bladder catheterization can serve as a pathway for bacteria to enter the bladder, and frequent pelvic examinations can disrupt the natural flora and introduce bacteria. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors to help prevent and manage UTIs effectively. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as all the listed conditions are significant risk factors for urinary tract infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them, when present, can contribute to the development of UTIs. It is essential for healthcare professionals to educate patients and colleagues about these risk factors to minimize the occurrence of UTIs.
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