a nurse in the delivery room is planning to promote parent infant bonding for a client who just delivered which of the following is the priority actio
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ATI Maternal Newborn

1. A client in the delivery room just delivered a newborn, and the nurse is planning to promote parent-infant bonding. What should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest is the priority action to promote warmth, regulate the newborn's heart rate and breathing, and enhance parent-infant bonding. This method facilitates early bonding, stabilizes the baby's temperature, and encourages breastfeeding initiation. Encouraging parents to touch and explore the newborn's features is important but not the priority at this moment. Limiting noise and interruptions can be beneficial but not as crucial as skin-to-skin contact for bonding. Placing the newborn at the client's breast is essential for breastfeeding but should come after the initial skin-to-skin contact for bonding and temperature regulation.

2. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is administered to counteract the effects of magnesium and restore calcium levels. Magnesium toxicity can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate helps in reversing these effects by competing with magnesium and preventing its adverse manifestations. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6 and is not the antidote for magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement and is not used to treat magnesium sulfate toxicity.

3. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.

4. A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump to prevent milk stasis, which can exacerbate mastitis. By ensuring proper drainage of the affected breast, the client can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because limiting feeding time can lead to inadequate drainage, potentially worsening the condition. Choice B is incorrect as it can cause engorgement in the unaffected breast, leading to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a tight-fitting bra can worsen symptoms by putting pressure on the affected breast, hindering proper drainage and exacerbating mastitis.

5. A nurse in a clinic receives a phone call from a client who would like information about pregnancy testing. Which of the following information should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For the most accurate results, a home pregnancy test should be done using the first morning urine, which contains the highest concentration of hCG.

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