Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing fetal heart tones for a pregnant client. The provider has determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the client's abdomen should the provider apply the ultrasound transducer to assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart?

• A. Left upper quadrant
• B. Right upper quadrant
• C. Left lower quadrant
• D. Right lower quadrant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the fetal position is left occipital anterior, the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart is best heard in the left lower quadrant of the client's abdomen. Placing the ultrasound transducer in the left lower quadrant allows for optimal detection of fetal heart tones in this specific fetal position. Choice A (Left upper quadrant) is incorrect as it is not where the fetal heart tones are best heard in this scenario. Choice B (Right upper quadrant) is also incorrect as it is not the recommended area for assessing fetal heart tones in a left occipital anterior position. Choice D (Right lower quadrant) is incorrect as the focus should be on the left side due to the fetal position mentioned.

2. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
• C. Obtain a prescription for IV oxytocin.
• D. Administer methylergonovine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.

3. A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Continue monitoring the client.
• C. Request that the provider assess the client.
• D. Increase the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Early decelerations in the FHR are benign and are typically caused by fetal head compression during contractions. In this case, with the client at 39 weeks of gestation and on oxytocin, it is important for the nurse to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations do not require intervention as they are a normal response to certain stimuli and do not indicate fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion (Choice A) is not necessary as early decelerations are not related to oxytocin administration. Requesting the provider to assess the client (Choice C) is not needed for early decelerations as they are a normal finding. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid (Choice D) is not indicated and would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the appropriate action is to continue monitoring the client and reassess as needed.

4. A nurse in a prenatal clinic overhears a newly licensed nurse discussing conception with a client. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Fertilization takes place in the outer third of the fallopian tube.
• B. Implantation occurs between 6 to 10 days after conception.
• C. Sperm remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days.
• D. Bleeding or spotting can accompany implantation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because implantation typically occurs between 6 to 10 days after conception, not 2 to 3 days. It is crucial for the nurse to intervene and provide accurate information to ensure the client receives correct education about conception. Choice A is correct as fertilization does occur in the outer third of the fallopian tube. Choice C is also accurate as sperm can remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days. Choice D is correct as bleeding or spotting can indeed accompany implantation.

5. A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will place my baby on his stomach when he is sleeping.
• B. I should remove extra blankets from my baby's crib.
• C. I should pad the mattress in my baby's crib so that he will be more comfortable when he sleeps.
• D. I should place my baby's crib next to the heater to keep him warm during the winter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Removing extra blankets from the crib is essential to prevent suffocation and reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Extra blankets can pose a suffocation hazard to the baby during sleep. It is recommended to keep the crib free from loose bedding, pillows, and other soft items to provide a safe sleep environment for the newborn. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Placing the baby on his stomach (Choice A) increases the risk of SIDS. Padding the mattress (Choice C) can also pose a suffocation risk, and placing the crib next to a heater (Choice D) can lead to overheating, which is associated with an increased risk of SIDS.

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