a nurse is observing the electronic fetal heart rate monitor tracing for a client who is at 40 weeks of gestation and is in labor the nurse should sus
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ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored

1. While observing the electronic fetal heart rate monitor tracing for a client at 40 weeks of gestation in labor, a nurse should suspect a problem with the umbilical cord when she observes which of the following patterns?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate umbilical cord compression, which is a concern that may arise due to the umbilical cord being compressed during labor. This compression can lead to reduced blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus, necessitating close monitoring and potentially interventions to alleviate the pressure on the cord. Early decelerations are typically benign and mirror the contractions, indicating fetal head compression. Accelerations are reassuring patterns that show a healthy response to fetal movement. Late decelerations are concerning as they suggest uteroplacental insufficiency, indicating potential oxygen deprivation to the fetus.

2. A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should advise the client to empty her bladder before an amniocentesis to minimize the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. This precaution helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure by reducing potential complications related to bladder puncture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lying on the right side, fasting for 24 hours, and determining gestational age are not relevant instructions for an amniocentesis procedure.

3. A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump to prevent milk stasis, which can exacerbate mastitis. By ensuring proper drainage of the affected breast, the client can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because limiting feeding time can lead to inadequate drainage, potentially worsening the condition. Choice B is incorrect as it can cause engorgement in the unaffected breast, leading to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a tight-fitting bra can worsen symptoms by putting pressure on the affected breast, hindering proper drainage and exacerbating mastitis.

4. Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is the preferred medication to treat gonorrhea, a bacterial infection. It is essential to promptly treat gonorrhea to prevent complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, and the spread of the infection to others. Fluconazole is used for fungal infections, Metronidazole treats certain bacterial and parasitic infections, and Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in HIV treatment; none of these are appropriate for gonorrhea.

5. A newborn was transferred to the nursery 30 min after delivery. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a newborn is transferred to the nursery, the first action the nurse should take is to verify the newborn's identification. This step is crucial for ensuring the correct care is provided to the right newborn, promoting patient safety and preventing errors. Administering vitamin K (Choice C) is important but should not be the first action. Determining obstetrical risk factors (Choice D) is not the priority when the newborn is transferred to the nursery. Confirming (Choice A) and verifying (Choice B) have similar meanings, but 'verify' is a more appropriate term in this context.

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