Nursing Elites

1. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
• C. Obtain a prescription for IV oxytocin.
• D. Administer methylergonovine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.

2. A client in a prenatal clinic is pregnant and experiencing episodes of maternal hypotension. The client asks the nurse what causes these episodes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This is due to an increase in blood volume.
• B. This is due to pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm.
• C. This is due to the weight of the uterus on the vena cava.
• D. This is due to increased cardiac output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maternal hypotension during pregnancy is often caused by the weight of the uterus pressing on the vena cava when the client is lying on her back, which reduces blood flow to the heart. This compression can lead to a decrease in blood pressure and subsequent symptoms of hypotension. Choice A is incorrect because an increase in blood volume typically leads to increased blood pressure rather than hypotension. Choice B is incorrect as pressure from the uterus on the diaphragm is not a common cause of maternal hypotension. Choice D is incorrect because increased cardiac output would not directly cause maternal hypotension.

3. A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?

• A. Ice water
• B. Low-fat or whole milk
• C. Tea or coffee
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Orange juice.' Orange juice is recommended to be taken with iron supplements because vitamin C present in orange juice enhances iron absorption, improving the effectiveness of the supplement. It is essential to take iron supplements with a source of vitamin C to optimize iron absorption and address iron deficiency anemia. Ice water (Choice A), low-fat or whole milk (Choice B), and tea or coffee (Choice C) are not ideal choices to take with iron supplements as they do not contain vitamin C, which is crucial for enhancing iron absorption.

4. A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?

• A. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 4-minute rest between contractions
• B. A contraction that lasts 4 minutes followed by a period of relaxation
• C. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
• D. Contractions that last 45 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When contractions are 4 minutes apart, it means there are 4 minutes from the start of one contraction to the start of the next. If each contraction lasts 60 seconds, there will be a 3-minute rest period between contractions. This allows for adequate uterine relaxation and recovery before the next contraction begins. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests a 4-minute rest between contractions, which is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as contractions lasting 4 minutes continuously without rest would be concerning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests 45-second contractions instead of 60-second contractions.

5. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?

• A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
• B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
• C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
• D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.

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