a nurse is assessing a client who is 12 hr postpartum the clients fundus is two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus deviated to the right of the midlin
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023

1. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.

2. A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When contractions are 4 minutes apart, it means there are 4 minutes from the start of one contraction to the start of the next. If each contraction lasts 60 seconds, there will be a 3-minute rest period between contractions. This allows for adequate uterine relaxation and recovery before the next contraction begins. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests a 4-minute rest between contractions, which is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as contractions lasting 4 minutes continuously without rest would be concerning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests 45-second contractions instead of 60-second contractions.

3. A client has postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client has postpartum psychosis, the priority action for the nurse is to ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant. This is crucial to assess the risk of harm and ensure the safety of the client and the infant. While reinforcing the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed is essential for treatment, safety concerns take precedence. Monitoring the infant for signs of failure to thrive is important for the infant's well-being but is not the priority when the immediate safety of the client and infant is at risk. Checking the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder is relevant for understanding the client's medical history but is not the priority when addressing current safety concerns.

4. A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is performed around 15-18 weeks of gestation to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus, not to assess fetal lung maturity, markers of fetal well-being, or Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of the MSAFP test. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of this screening test.

5. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.

Similar Questions

A parent of a newborn is being taught about crib safety. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
A newborn is small for gestational age (SGA). Which of the following findings is associated with this condition?
A client who is at 39 weeks of gestation and is in active labor has fetal heart tones located above the umbilicus at midline. The fetus is likely in which of the following positions?
During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?
A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses