Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at an antepartum clinic is caring for a client who is at 4 months of gestation. The client reports continued nausea, vomiting, and scant, prune-colored discharge. The client has experienced no weight loss and has a fundal height larger than expected. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hyperemesis gravidarum
• B. Threatened abortion
• C. Hydatidiform mole
• D. Preterm labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the symptoms of continued nausea, vomiting, scant prune-colored discharge, and a fundal height larger than expected at 4 months of gestation suggest a possible hydatidiform mole. Hyperemesis gravidarum (choice A) typically presents with severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances. Threatened abortion (choice B) is characterized by vaginal bleeding with or without cramping but does not typically present with prune-colored discharge. Preterm labor (choice D) manifests with regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes and can occur later in pregnancy.

2. A client is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the client include?

• A. Use a condom with sexual intercourse
• B. Avoid bubble bath solution when taking a tub bath
• C. Wipe from front to back when performing perineal hygiene
• D. Keep a daily record of fetal kick counts

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Keeping a daily record of fetal kick counts is crucial for clients with premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation as it helps monitor fetal well-being. This activity enables the client to assess the frequency and strength of fetal movements, which can provide important information about the fetus' health and development. Other options such as using a condom with sexual intercourse, avoiding bubble bath solution, and wiping from front to back are important for general perinatal care but are not specifically related to managing premature rupture of membranes.

3. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

• A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
• B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
• C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
• D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).

4. When assisting a client with breastfeeding, which of the following reflexes will promote the newborn to latch?

• A. Babinski
• B. Rooting
• C. Moro
• D. Stepping

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rooting. The rooting reflex is crucial in newborns as it helps them locate the nipple for feeding. This reflex involves turning the head towards a stimulus that touches the cheek or mouth, aiding in the process of latching onto the breast for breastfeeding. The Babinski reflex is the fanning out and curling of the toes when the sole of the foot is stroked, the Moro reflex is the startle reflex in response to a sudden noise or movement, and the stepping reflex is the appearance of taking steps when an infant is held upright with feet touching a solid surface. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not play a direct role in promoting a newborn to latch during breastfeeding.

5. When assessing a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who received synthetic surfactant, which parameter should the nurse monitor to evaluate the newborn's condition?

• A. Oxygen saturation
• B. Body temperature
• C. Serum bilirubin
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who has received synthetic surfactant, monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Oxygen saturation levels provide valuable information about the newborn's respiratory status and the adequacy of gas exchange. Changes in oxygen saturation can indicate improvements or deterioration in the newborn's condition following the administration of synthetic surfactant. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess the newborn's response to treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Body temperature, serum bilirubin, and heart rate are important parameters to monitor in newborns for other conditions but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of synthetic surfactant in treating respiratory distress syndrome.

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