Nursing Elites

1. When should a provider order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening for pregnant clients?

• A. A client who has mitral valve prolapse
• B. A client who has been exposed to AIDS
• C. All pregnant clients
• D. A client who has a history of preterm labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is recommended for all pregnant clients to assess the risk of neural tube defects. It is a routine screening test used to detect increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein in maternal blood, which may indicate a higher risk for conditions such as neural tube defects in the developing fetus. Therefore, all pregnant clients, regardless of their medical history or risk factors, should undergo MSAFP screening as part of routine prenatal care. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the MSAFP screening is not specific to certain medical conditions or histories; it is a standard screening procedure for all pregnant individuals to evaluate neural tube defect risk in the fetus.

2. A parent is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse regarding caring for their newborn after a circumcision. Which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Apply slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad for mild bleeding.
• B. Inspect the circumcision site every 6 to 8 hours.
• C. Avoid using baby wipes containing alcohol to cleanse the penis with each diaper change.
• D. Clean the circumcision site daily using a warm, wet washcloth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to apply slight pressure with a sterile gauze pad for mild bleeding. This helps to stop bleeding. If the bleeding persists, the parent should contact the healthcare provider for further guidance. While inspecting the circumcision site is important, checking every 6 to 8 hours might be too frequent and could disrupt healing. Using baby wipes containing alcohol can irritate the sensitive skin, so it is advised to avoid them. Cleaning the circumcision site daily is crucial, but excessive cleaning by removing yellow exudate daily is not necessary unless advised by the healthcare provider.

3. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

4. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

5. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who has a prescription for magnesium sulfate. The provider should recognize that which of the following are contraindications for the use of this medication? (Select all that apply)

• A. Fetal distress
• B. Cervical dilation greater than 6 cm
• C. Vaginal bleeding
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Magnesium sulfate should not be used in cases of fetal distress, vaginal bleeding, or cervical dilation greater than 6 cm. These conditions can be exacerbated by the administration of magnesium sulfate, leading to further complications for the client. Choice A, fetal distress, is a contraindication because magnesium sulfate can further affect the fetal heart rate. Choice B, cervical dilation greater than 6 cm, is a contraindication as magnesium sulfate can potentially suppress uterine contractions, prolonging labor. Choice C, vaginal bleeding, is a contraindication as magnesium sulfate can further increase bleeding tendencies.

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