ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn
1. A healthcare professional is discussing risk factors for urinary tract infections with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following conditions should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
- A. Epidural anesthesia
- B. Urinary bladder catheterization
- C. Frequent pelvic examinations
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Urinary tract infections can be influenced by various factors. Epidural anesthesia, urinary bladder catheterization, and frequent pelvic examinations are all associated with an increased risk of UTIs. Epidural anesthesia can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, urinary bladder catheterization can serve as a pathway for bacteria to enter the bladder, and frequent pelvic examinations can disrupt the natural flora and introduce bacteria. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors to help prevent and manage UTIs effectively. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as all the listed conditions are significant risk factors for urinary tract infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them, when present, can contribute to the development of UTIs. It is essential for healthcare professionals to educate patients and colleagues about these risk factors to minimize the occurrence of UTIs.
2. A client who is postpartum is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. For which of the following clinical manifestations should the client be instructed to monitor and report to the provider?
- A. Persistent abdominal striae
- B. Temperature 37.8° C (100.2° F)
- C. Unilateral breast pain
- D. Brownish-red discharge on day 5
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Unilateral breast pain can be a sign of mastitis, an infection of the breast tissue, which requires prompt evaluation and treatment. The nurse should instruct the client to report this clinical manifestation to the provider to prevent complications and promote recovery.
3. A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)
- A. Respirations less than 12/min
- B. Urinary output less than 25 mL/hr
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity include respirations less than 12/min, urinary output less than 25 mL/hr, and decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate potential overdose of magnesium sulfate and require immediate attention to prevent further complications. Reporting these signs promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as all the listed findings are indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choices A, B, and C individually represent different signs of toxicity, making them incorrect on their own. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in identifying and reporting all these signs to prevent adverse outcomes.
4. A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. Limit the amount of time the infant nurses on each breast.
- B. Nurse the infant only on the unaffected breast until resolved.
- C. Completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump.
- D. Wear a tight-fitting bra until lactation has ceased.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump to prevent milk stasis, which can exacerbate mastitis. By ensuring proper drainage of the affected breast, the client can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because limiting feeding time can lead to inadequate drainage, potentially worsening the condition. Choice B is incorrect as it can cause engorgement in the unaffected breast, leading to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a tight-fitting bra can worsen symptoms by putting pressure on the affected breast, hindering proper drainage and exacerbating mastitis.
5. A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution.
- B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.
- C. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin.
- D. Slow the client's breathing rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The described pattern suggests late decelerations, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion helps reduce uterine contractions, improving placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This intervention is essential to prevent fetal compromise and potential harm during labor. Choice A is incorrect because decreasing the rate of the maintenance IV solution does not directly address the cause of the late decelerations. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the rate of IV oxytocin can worsen uterine contractions, exacerbating the fetal distress. Choice D is incorrect because slowing the client's breathing rate is not indicated in the management of late decelerations during labor.
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