Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?

• A. Singleton pregnancy
• B. BMI of 20
• C. Maternal age of 32 years
• D. Pregestational diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pregestational diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for the development of preeclampsia in pregnant individuals. Preeclampsia is more common in women with preexisting conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, renal disease, lupus, or rheumatoid arthritis. Singleton pregnancy, a BMI of 20, or maternal age of 32 years are not considered significant risk factors for developing preeclampsia.

2. A newborn who was born at 38 weeks of gestation, weighs 3,200 g, and is in the 60th percentile for weight should be classified as which of the following?

• A. Low birth weight
• B. Appropriate for gestational age
• C. Small for gestational age
• D. Large for gestational age

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The classification of a newborn as appropriate for gestational age is determined by considering the weight and gestational age. In this case, the newborn's weight falls within the normal range for the gestational age, indicating that the newborn is appropriately sized for the length of time spent in the womb. Choice A, 'Low birth weight,' is incorrect as the newborn's weight is within the normal range. Choice C, 'Small for gestational age,' is incorrect because the newborn's weight is not below the 10th percentile for gestational age. Choice D, 'Large for gestational age,' is incorrect as the newborn's weight is not above the 90th percentile, rather falling within the 60th percentile which is considered normal.

3. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?

• A. Nifedipine
• B. Pyridoxine
• C. Ferrous sulfate
• D. Calcium gluconate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is administered to counteract the effects of magnesium and restore calcium levels. Magnesium toxicity can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate helps in reversing these effects by competing with magnesium and preventing its adverse manifestations. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6 and is not the antidote for magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement and is not used to treat magnesium sulfate toxicity.

4. When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?

• A. Hgb 12.2 g/dL
• B. Urine ketones present
• C. Alanine aminotransferase 20 IU/L
• D. Blood glucose 114 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration, which is a common manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum. Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances due to dehydration. Monitoring for ketonuria helps assess the degree of dehydration in clients with this condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin level, alanine aminotransferase level, and blood glucose level are not specific manifestations of hyperemesis gravidarum. While these laboratory values may be abnormal in some cases, they are not typically used to diagnose or assess the condition.

5. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding, with a tentative diagnosis of inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Offer the option to view products of conception.
• C. Instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of inevitable abortion, offering the option to view products of conception can assist in emotional healing and closure for the client. This can provide a sense of acknowledgment and closure for the loss experienced, aiding in the grieving process. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (choice A) is not directly related to the emotional and psychological support needed during an inevitable abortion. Instructing the client to increase potassium-rich foods (choice C) may not be a priority in this situation. Maintaining the client on bed rest (choice D) may be indicated in some cases but does not address the emotional aspect of the situation.

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