Nursing Elites

1. A client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypothermia
• C. Constipation
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Carboprost is a vasoconstrictor medication used to control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. One of the adverse effects of carboprost is hypertension due to its vasoconstrictive properties. Hypertension can occur as a result of increased peripheral vascular resistance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypothermia, constipation, and muscle weakness are not typically associated with the administration of carboprost. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client's blood pressure closely while on carboprost to promptly detect and manage hypertension.

2. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the changes she should expect when planning to become pregnant. Identify the correct sequence of maternal changes. A. Amenorrhea B.Lightening C. Goodell's sign D. Quickening

• A. A,B,C,D
• B. D,B,A,C
• C. A,D,B,C
• D. A,C,D,B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence of maternal changes during pregnancy is as follows: Amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods), Goodell's sign (softening of the cervix), Quickening (first fetal movements felt by the mother), and Lightening (baby descending into the pelvis). These changes occur at different stages of pregnancy and are important indicators of fetal development and maternal adaptation. Choice A is correct as it is the initial change indicating possible pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D follow in the correct order of occurrence during pregnancy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not follow the correct sequence of maternal changes.

3. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
• C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.

4. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding, with a tentative diagnosis of inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Offer the option to view products of conception.
• C. Instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of inevitable abortion, offering the option to view products of conception can assist in emotional healing and closure for the client. This can provide a sense of acknowledgment and closure for the loss experienced, aiding in the grieving process. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (choice A) is not directly related to the emotional and psychological support needed during an inevitable abortion. Instructing the client to increase potassium-rich foods (choice C) may not be a priority in this situation. Maintaining the client on bed rest (choice D) may be indicated in some cases but does not address the emotional aspect of the situation.

5. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
• B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
• C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
• D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.

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