Nursing Elites

1. A client who received carboprost for postpartum hemorrhage is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypothermia
• C. Constipation
• D. Muscle weakness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Carboprost is a vasoconstrictor medication used to control postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. One of the adverse effects of carboprost is hypertension due to its vasoconstrictive properties. Hypertension can occur as a result of increased peripheral vascular resistance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypothermia, constipation, and muscle weakness are not typically associated with the administration of carboprost. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client's blood pressure closely while on carboprost to promptly detect and manage hypertension.

2. A client in the delivery room just delivered a newborn, and the nurse is planning to promote parent-infant bonding. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Encourage the parents to touch and explore the newborn's features
• B. Limit noise and interruptions in the delivery room
• C. Place the newborn at the client's breast
• D. Position the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Positioning the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest is the priority action to promote warmth, regulate the newborn's heart rate and breathing, and enhance parent-infant bonding. This method facilitates early bonding, stabilizes the baby's temperature, and encourages breastfeeding initiation. Encouraging parents to touch and explore the newborn's features is important but not the priority at this moment. Limiting noise and interruptions can be beneficial but not as crucial as skin-to-skin contact for bonding. Placing the newborn at the client's breast is essential for breastfeeding but should come after the initial skin-to-skin contact for bonding and temperature regulation.

3. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?

• A. Placenta previa
• B. Prolapsed cord
• C. Incompetent cervix
• D. Abruptio placentae

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.

4. A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?

• A. Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour.
• B. Obtain a daily weight.
• C. Continuous fetal monitoring
• D. Ambulate twice daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating twice daily is not recommended for a client with severe preeclampsia. Clients with severe preeclampsia are at risk for seizures and should be on bed rest to prevent complications. Ambulation can increase blood pressure and the risk of seizure activity in these clients. Assessing deep tendon reflexes, obtaining a daily weight, and continuous fetal monitoring are all appropriate and important interventions for a client with severe preeclampsia to monitor for signs of worsening condition and fetal well-being.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. A newborn who is 26 hours old and has erythema toxicum on their face
• B. A newborn who is 32 hours old and has not passed meconium stool
• C. A newborn who is 12 hours old and has pink-tinged urine
• D. A newborn who is 18 hours old and has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An axillary temperature greater than 37.5° C (99.5° F) is above the expected reference range for a newborn and can be an indication of sepsis. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management to rule out sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are within the expected range of normal findings for newborns. Erythema toxicum is a common and benign rash in newborns, not requiring immediate reporting. Not passing meconium stool within the first 24-48 hours can be normal, and pink-tinged urine can be due to uric acid crystals excretion, which is also common in newborns.

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