a nurse is assisting with the care of an infant who has a high bilirubin level and is receiving phototherapy which of the following findings is the pr
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

ATI Maternal Newborn

1. While assisting with the care of an infant with a high bilirubin level receiving phototherapy, which finding should the nurse prioritize for reporting to the charge nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sunken fontanels should be prioritized for reporting as they indicate dehydration, which is a critical concern in infants undergoing phototherapy. Dehydration can lead to serious complications, making it essential for the nurse to promptly inform the charge nurse for appropriate intervention and management. Conjunctivitis, bronze skin discoloration, and maculopapular skin rash are important findings to note, but in this scenario, sunken fontanels take precedence due to the potential severity of dehydration in infants.

2. A client is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following instructions should the client include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Keeping a daily record of fetal kick counts is crucial for clients with premature rupture of membranes at 26 weeks of gestation as it helps monitor fetal well-being. This activity enables the client to assess the frequency and strength of fetal movements, which can provide important information about the fetus' health and development. Other options such as using a condom with sexual intercourse, avoiding bubble bath solution, and wiping from front to back are important for general perinatal care but are not specifically related to managing premature rupture of membranes.

3. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

4. When reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with breastfeeding clients, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients who do not like milk should continue taking calcium supplements to ensure they meet their increased calcium needs while breastfeeding. Calcium is essential for bone health, and during breastfeeding, the mother's calcium requirements are higher. While caffeine in coffee can be consumed in moderation, folic acid does not directly impact milk supply, and the additional 330 calories per day are recommended but not the focus of this question.

5. Which of the following medications should the provider prescribe for a client with gonorrhea?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ceftriaxone is the preferred medication to treat gonorrhea, a bacterial infection. It is essential to promptly treat gonorrhea to prevent complications such as pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, and the spread of the infection to others. Fluconazole is used for fungal infections, Metronidazole treats certain bacterial and parasitic infections, and Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in HIV treatment; none of these are appropriate for gonorrhea.

Similar Questions

A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
During an assessment, a client at 26 weeks of gestation presents with which of the following clinical manifestations that should be reported to the provider?
A client in active labor has 7 cm of cervical dilation, 100% effacement, and the fetus at 1+ station. The client's amniotic membranes are intact, but she suddenly expresses the need to push. What should the nurse do?
In a prenatal clinic, a client in the first trimester of pregnancy has a health record that includes this data: G3 T1 P0 A1 L1. How should the nurse interpret this information? (Select all that apply)
A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses