Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is teaching clients in a prenatal class about the importance of taking folic acid during pregnancy. The nurse should instruct the clients to consume an adequate amount of folic acid from various sources to prevent which of the following fetal abnormalities?

• A. Neural tube defect
• B. Trisomy 21
• C. Cleft lip
• D. Atrial septal defect

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should educate clients that inadequate folic acid intake is associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects in newborns. Consuming an adequate amount of folic acid from sources like fortified cereals, oranges, artichokes, liver, broccoli, and asparagus can help prevent this serious fetal abnormality. Trisomy 21 (Choice B) is caused by an extra chromosome 21 and is not preventable by folic acid intake. Cleft lip (Choice C) and atrial septal defect (Choice D) are not directly linked to folic acid intake during pregnancy.

2. A client is in labor and reports increasing rectal pressure. She is experiencing contractions 2 to 3 minutes apart, each lasting 80 to 90 seconds, and a vaginal examination reveals that her cervix is dilated to 9 cm. The client is in which of the following phases of labor?

• A. Active
• B. Transition
• C. Latent
• D. Descent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client is in the transition phase of labor, characterized by cervical dilatation of 8 to 10 cm and contractions every 2 to 3 minutes, each lasting 45 to 90 seconds. In this phase, the cervix is nearly fully dilated, preparing the client for the pushing stage. The active phase of labor typically involves cervical dilatation from 4 to 7 cm, whereas the latent phase is the early phase of labor when the cervix dilates from 0 to 3 cm. Descent is not a phase of labor but rather refers to the movement of the fetus through the birth canal during the second stage of labor.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
• B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
• C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
• D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?

• A. Respiratory distress
• B. Hypothermia
• C. Accidental lacerations
• D. Acrocyanosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. Assessing for respiratory distress is the priority when evaluating a newborn after a cesarean delivery. Newborns born via cesarean section are at higher risk for respiratory complications, making it crucial to monitor their breathing and ensure proper oxygenation immediately after birth. Choice B, hypothermia, is important too but assessing breathing takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply. Choices C and D, accidental lacerations and acrocyanosis, are not the immediate priorities following a cesarean delivery.

5. A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?

• A. The client's room number
• B. The client's telephone number
• C. The client's birth date
• D. The client's medical record number

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not an appropriate method for client identification in healthcare settings. It can lead to confusion and potential errors, especially in a busy environment like a postpartum unit. Room numbers are not unique to individual patients and can change frequently. Instead, healthcare providers should use more reliable and specific identifiers like the client's name, medical record number, or date of birth to ensure accurate identification and safe administration of medications. Choices B, C, and D are more appropriate secondary identifiers for client identification as they are more specific and less prone to errors than room numbers.

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