ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn
1. When reinforcing teaching with a group of new parents about proper techniques for bottle feeding, which of the following instructions should be provided?
- A. Burp the newborn at the end of the feeding
- B. Hold the newborn close in a supine position
- C. Keep the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding
- D. Refrigerate any unused formula
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct technique for bottle feeding includes keeping the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding to prevent air from entering the baby's stomach. This helps reduce the risk of the baby swallowing air, which can lead to discomfort and colic. Therefore, maintaining a full nipple during feeding is essential for the baby's comfort and digestion. Option A is incorrect as burping should be done during the feeding to prevent excessive air intake. Option B is incorrect as the baby should be held semi-upright, not in a supine position, to reduce the risk of choking and ear infections. Option D is irrelevant to the feeding process and does not contribute to the baby's well-being.
2. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?
- A. Placenta previa
- B. Prolapsed cord
- C. Incompetent cervix
- D. Abruptio placentae
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.
3. When reinforcing teaching with new parents on bathing a newborn, a nurse observes a bluish-brown marking across the newborn's lower back. Which of the following statements should the nurse make concerning the variation?
- A. This is more commonly seen in newborns who have dark skin.
- B. This is a finding indicating hyperbilirubinemia.
- C. This is a forceps mark from an operative delivery.
- D. This is related to prolonged birth or trauma during delivery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A bluish-brown marking across the lower back is more commonly seen in newborns with dark skin. These markings are known as Mongolian spots and are benign. They are not related to hyperbilirubinemia, forceps marks, or trauma during delivery. Choice B is incorrect because hyperbilirubinemia presents as jaundice, not as a bluish-brown marking. Choice C is incorrect because forceps marks would have a different appearance and location. Choice D is incorrect as Mongolian spots are not related to prolonged birth or trauma during delivery.
4. A client who is postpartum received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?
- A. Increase in blood pressure
- B. Fundus firm to palpation
- C. Increase in lochia
- D. Report of absent breast pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. A firm fundus indicates effective uterine contraction and less bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is a firm fundus to palpation. The increase in blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical finding associated with the effectiveness of methylergonovine. Increase in lochia (Choice C) may indicate excessive bleeding rather than the medication's effectiveness. Absence of breast pain (Choice D) is not directly related to the medication's effectiveness in treating postpartum hemorrhage.
5. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
- B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
- C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
- D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.
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