Nursing Elites

1. A client in active labor reports back pain while being examined by a nurse who finds her to be 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced, -2 station, and in the occiput posterior position. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Perform effleurage during contractions.
• B. Place the client in lithotomy position.
• C. Assist the client to the hands and knees position.
• D. Apply a scalp electrode to the fetus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should assist the client into the hands and knees position during contractions to help relieve her back pain and facilitate the rotation of the fetus from the posterior to an anterior occiput position. This position can aid in optimal fetal positioning for delivery. Choice A, performing effleurage, is a massage technique that may provide comfort but does not address the fetal position. Placing the client in lithotomy position (Choice B) may not be ideal for a client experiencing back pain due to the occiput posterior position. Applying a scalp electrode to the fetus (Choice D) is not indicated solely for addressing the client's back pain.

2. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)

• A. Urinary tract infection
• B. Multifetal pregnancy
• C. Oligohydramnios
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Multiple risk factors can contribute to preterm labor, including urinary tract infection, multifetal pregnancy, and oligohydramnios. These factors can lead to the uterus being irritated or overstimulated, potentially triggering early labor. Urinary tract infections can cause inflammation and contractions, multifetal pregnancies have a higher risk of preterm labor due to increased uterine stretching, and oligohydramnios can lead to poor fetal growth and premature contractions. Therefore, clients presenting with these conditions require close monitoring and management to prevent preterm birth. Choices A, B, and C are all correct risk factors for preterm labor, making option D the correct answer.

3. During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. It is used to stimulate uterine contractions.
• B. It will decrease the incidence of uterine contractions.
• C. It lulls the fetus to sleep.
• D. It awakens a sleeping fetus.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The acoustic vibration device is utilized during a nonstress test to awaken a sleeping fetus. This action helps ensure more accurate test results by eliciting fetal movements and heart rate accelerations, which are indicators of fetal well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary purpose of the acoustic vibration device during a nonstress test is not to stimulate uterine contractions, decrease uterine contractions, or lull the fetus to sleep. Instead, it is specifically used to awaken a sleeping fetus to assess fetal well-being.

4. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?

• A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
• B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
• C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
• D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.

5. When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?

• A. Hgb 12.2 g/dL
• B. Urine ketones present
• C. Alanine aminotransferase 20 IU/L
• D. Blood glucose 114 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration, which is a common manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum. Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances due to dehydration. Monitoring for ketonuria helps assess the degree of dehydration in clients with this condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin level, alanine aminotransferase level, and blood glucose level are not specific manifestations of hyperemesis gravidarum. While these laboratory values may be abnormal in some cases, they are not typically used to diagnose or assess the condition.

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