Nursing Elites

1. A client in active labor reports back pain while being examined by a nurse who finds her to be 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced, -2 station, and in the occiput posterior position. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Perform effleurage during contractions.
• B. Place the client in lithotomy position.
• C. Assist the client to the hands and knees position.
• D. Apply a scalp electrode to the fetus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should assist the client into the hands and knees position during contractions to help relieve her back pain and facilitate the rotation of the fetus from the posterior to an anterior occiput position. This position can aid in optimal fetal positioning for delivery. Choice A, performing effleurage, is a massage technique that may provide comfort but does not address the fetal position. Placing the client in lithotomy position (Choice B) may not be ideal for a client experiencing back pain due to the occiput posterior position. Applying a scalp electrode to the fetus (Choice D) is not indicated solely for addressing the client's back pain.

2. A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?

• A. The client's room number
• B. The client's telephone number
• C. The client's birth date
• D. The client's medical record number

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not an appropriate method for client identification in healthcare settings. It can lead to confusion and potential errors, especially in a busy environment like a postpartum unit. Room numbers are not unique to individual patients and can change frequently. Instead, healthcare providers should use more reliable and specific identifiers like the client's name, medical record number, or date of birth to ensure accurate identification and safe administration of medications. Choices B, C, and D are more appropriate secondary identifiers for client identification as they are more specific and less prone to errors than room numbers.

3. When checking for the Moro reflex in a newborn, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Hold the newborn vertically under arms and allow one foot to touch the table.
• B. Stimulate the pads of the newborn's hands with stroking or massage.
• C. Stimulate the soles of the newborn's feet on the outer lateral surface of each foot.
• D. Hold the newborn in a semi-sitting position, then allow the newborn's head and trunk to fall backward.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to check for the Moro reflex in a newborn is to hold the newborn in a semi-sitting position and then allow the newborn's head and trunk to fall backward. The Moro reflex is elicited by a sudden loss of support or a loud noise. The normal response involves symmetrical abduction and extension of the arms, followed by their return to the midline in an embracing motion. Choices A, B, and C do not describe the correct method for assessing the Moro reflex and are therefore incorrect.

4. A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Your milk will replace colostrum in about 10 days.
• B. Your breasts should feel firm after breastfeeding.
• C. Your newborn should urinate at least 10 times per day.
• D. Your newborn should appear content after each feeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that a baby who is sated will appear content after feedings. This indicates that the baby is effectively emptying the breasts during feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Breast milk replaces colostrum within a few days, not 10 days. B) Breasts feeling firm after breastfeeding may indicate engorgement or plugged ducts, not necessarily effective breastfeeding. C) While the frequency of urination is important, it is not directly related to effective breastfeeding.

5. A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution.
• B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.
• C. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin.
• D. Slow the client's breathing rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The described pattern suggests late decelerations, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion helps reduce uterine contractions, improving placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This intervention is essential to prevent fetal compromise and potential harm during labor. Choice A is incorrect because decreasing the rate of the maintenance IV solution does not directly address the cause of the late decelerations. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the rate of IV oxytocin can worsen uterine contractions, exacerbating the fetal distress. Choice D is incorrect because slowing the client's breathing rate is not indicated in the management of late decelerations during labor.

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