ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client in active labor reports back pain while being examined by a nurse who finds her to be 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced, -2 station, and in the occiput posterior position. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Perform effleurage during contractions.
- B. Place the client in lithotomy position.
- C. Assist the client to the hands and knees position.
- D. Apply a scalp electrode to the fetus.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should assist the client into the hands and knees position during contractions to help relieve her back pain and facilitate the rotation of the fetus from the posterior to an anterior occiput position. This position can aid in optimal fetal positioning for delivery. Choice A, performing effleurage, is a massage technique that may provide comfort but does not address the fetal position. Placing the client in lithotomy position (Choice B) may not be ideal for a client experiencing back pain due to the occiput posterior position. Applying a scalp electrode to the fetus (Choice D) is not indicated solely for addressing the client's back pain.
2. A client is being cared for 2 hours after a spontaneous vaginal birth and has saturated two perineal pads with blood in a 30-minute period. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention at this time?
- A. Palpate the client's uterine fundus.
- B. Assist the client to a bedpan to urinate.
- C. Prepare to administer oxytocic medication.
- D. Increase the client's fluid intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to palpate the client's uterine fundus. A boggy uterus that is not well contracted may indicate uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Palpating the fundus and massaging it if it is boggy helps to promote contractions and reduce bleeding, making it the most critical intervention to address the potential underlying issue. Assisting the client to a bedpan to urinate, preparing to administer oxytocic medication, or increasing the client's fluid intake are not the immediate priorities in this scenario compared to assessing and addressing the uterine fundus status.
3. While observing the electronic fetal heart rate monitor tracing for a client at 40 weeks of gestation in labor, a nurse should suspect a problem with the umbilical cord when she observes which of the following patterns?
- A. Early decelerations
- B. Accelerations
- C. Late decelerations
- D. Variable decelerations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Variable decelerations can indicate umbilical cord compression, which is a concern that may arise due to the umbilical cord being compressed during labor. This compression can lead to reduced blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus, necessitating close monitoring and potentially interventions to alleviate the pressure on the cord. Early decelerations are typically benign and mirror the contractions, indicating fetal head compression. Accelerations are reassuring patterns that show a healthy response to fetal movement. Late decelerations are concerning as they suggest uteroplacental insufficiency, indicating potential oxygen deprivation to the fetus.
4. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?
- A. Check the client's temperature.
- B. Observe for uterine contractions.
- C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
- D. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.
5. A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
- A. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG)
- B. Biophysical profile score of 8
- C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
- D. Reactive nonstress test
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An L/S ratio of 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity, as it signifies the presence of surfactant in the amniotic fluid, which helps with lung expansion and prevents collapse at the end of expiration. The absence of PG indicates immaturity of the fetal lungs, as PG appears in the amniotic fluid during the later stages of lung maturation. Biophysical profile scores and nonstress tests are assessments of fetal well-being and do not directly indicate fetal lung maturity. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access