ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation is being educated about common discomforts of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the individual include? (Select all that apply)
- A. Breast tenderness
- B. Urinary frequency
- C. Epistaxis
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During early pregnancy, common discomforts include breast tenderness due to hormonal changes, urinary frequency caused by increased blood flow to the kidneys, and epistaxis (nosebleeds) due to increased blood volume and hormonal changes. Educating the client about these discomforts helps them understand what to expect during this stage. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the listed findings are common discomforts experienced during early pregnancy. Choices A, B, and C are individually correct as well, as breast tenderness, urinary frequency, and epistaxis are all common discomforts that pregnant individuals may encounter.
2. A newborn was transferred to the nursery 30 min after delivery. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Confirm the newborn's identification.
- B. Verify the newborn's identification.
- C. Administer vitamin K to the newborn.
- D. Determine obstetrical risk factors.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a newborn is transferred to the nursery, the first action the nurse should take is to verify the newborn's identification. This step is crucial for ensuring the correct care is provided to the right newborn, promoting patient safety and preventing errors. Administering vitamin K (Choice C) is important but should not be the first action. Determining obstetrical risk factors (Choice D) is not the priority when the newborn is transferred to the nursery. Confirming (Choice A) and verifying (Choice B) have similar meanings, but 'verify' is a more appropriate term in this context.
3. A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.
- A. Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part.
- B. Determine the location of the fetal back.
- C. Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet.
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for the nurse to follow when performing Leopold maneuvers is as follows: first, palpate the client's fundus to identify the fetal part, second, determine the location of the fetal back, third, palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet, and finally, palpate the cephalic prominence to identify the attitude of the head. Therefore, option D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as it includes all the steps in the correct sequence. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not represent the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers.
4. A client who is at 22 weeks of gestation reports concern about the blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist.
- B. Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
- C. Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D.
- D. Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead. It is most common in dark-skinned women and is caused by an increase in melanotropin during pregnancy. This condition typically appears after 16 weeks of gestation and gradually increases until delivery for 50 to 70% of women. The nurse should reassure the client that this is an expected occurrence, which usually fades after delivery. Therefore, explaining to the client that this is an expected occurrence is the appropriate action in this situation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because chloasma is a common skin change during pregnancy and does not require a referral to a dermatologist, an increase in vitamin D intake, or suspicion of an allergy to skin care products.
5. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
- A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
- B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
- C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
- D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access