Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?

• A. No alteration in menses
• B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus
• C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range
• D. Report of severe shoulder pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe shoulder pain is a common finding in clients with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation caused by blood in the abdominal cavity. This pain is known as Kehr's sign and is often experienced in the shoulder due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock, rather than no alteration in menses, a fetus in the uterus, or elevated blood progesterone levels.

2. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

3. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?

• A. Shortly after giving birth
• B. In the third trimester
• C. Immediately
• D. During the next attempt to get pregnant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.

4. A healthcare professional is providing information to a group of clients who are pregnant about measures to relieve backache during pregnancy. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional include? (Select all that apply)

• A. Avoid any lifting
• B. Perform Kegel exercises twice a day
• C. Perform the pelvic rock exercise every day
• D. Avoid standing for prolonged periods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing the pelvic rock exercise daily can help relieve backache during pregnancy by strengthening the back and abdominal muscles, providing support to the spine. This exercise is beneficial in maintaining proper posture and reducing strain on the back. Avoiding standing for prolonged periods can also help alleviate backache by reducing pressure on the spine and supporting muscles. Kegel exercises primarily focus on strengthening the pelvic floor muscles and may not directly help with backache during pregnancy. Avoiding any lifting is overly restrictive and not necessary, as long as proper lifting techniques are followed.

5. When assessing newborn reflexes, what action should be taken to elicit the Moro reflex?

• A. Perform a sharp hand clap near the infant.
• B. Hold the newborn vertically allowing one foot to touch the table surface.
• C. Place a finger at the base of the newborn's toes.
• D. Turn the newborn's head quickly to one side.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform a sharp hand clap near the infant. The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is elicited by a sudden stimuli such as a sharp hand clap near the infant. This reflex is characterized by the infant's arms extending and then flexing with a distinctive 'startle' motion. It is a normal and expected reflex in newborns, typically disappearing by 3-6 months of age. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not elicit the Moro reflex; holding the newborn vertically (choice B) or placing a finger at the base of the newborn's toes (choice C) are associated with other reflexes, while turning the newborn's head quickly to one side (choice D) is related to the tonic neck reflex.

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