ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?
- A. No alteration in menses
- B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus
- C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range
- D. Report of severe shoulder pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe shoulder pain is a common finding in clients with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation caused by blood in the abdominal cavity. This pain is known as Kehr's sign and is often experienced in the shoulder due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock, rather than no alteration in menses, a fetus in the uterus, or elevated blood progesterone levels.
2. A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. An IUD should be replaced annually during a pelvic exam.
- B. I cannot get an IUD until after I've had a child.
- C. I should plan on regaining fertility 5 months after the IUD is removed.
- D. I will check to ensure the strings of the IUD are still present after my periods.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Checking for the presence of IUD strings after each period is crucial to ensure the IUD is correctly positioned and functioning. This practice helps in confirming the effectiveness of the contraceptive method and timely detection of any displacement or issues with the IUD. Choice A is incorrect as IUDs have varying durations of effectiveness, but they do not need to be replaced annually as a routine. Choice B is incorrect as women can get an IUD even if they haven't had a child. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns shortly after IUD removal, not necessarily after a specific timeframe like 5 months.
3. A nurse is caring for several clients. The nurse should recognize that it is safe to administer tocolytic therapy to which of the following clients?
- A. A client who is experiencing fetal death at 32 weeks of gestation
- B. A client who is experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation
- C. A client who is experiencing Braxton-Hicks contractions at 36 weeks of gestation
- D. A client who has a post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks of gestation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tocolytic therapy is used to suppress premature labor. It is appropriate to administer it to a client experiencing preterm labor at 26 weeks of gestation to help delay delivery and improve neonatal outcomes. Administering tocolytic therapy to a client experiencing fetal death, Braxton-Hicks contractions, or post-term pregnancy is not indicated and may not be safe or effective in these situations. Fetal death at 32 weeks indicates a non-viable pregnancy, Braxton-Hicks contractions are normal and not indicative of preterm labor, and post-term pregnancy at 42 weeks does not require tocolytic therapy.
4. While assisting with the care of an infant with a high bilirubin level receiving phototherapy, which finding should the nurse prioritize for reporting to the charge nurse?
- A. Conjunctivitis
- B. Bronze skin discoloration
- C. Sunken fontanels
- D. Maculopapular skin rash
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sunken fontanels should be prioritized for reporting as they indicate dehydration, which is a critical concern in infants undergoing phototherapy. Dehydration can lead to serious complications, making it essential for the nurse to promptly inform the charge nurse for appropriate intervention and management. Conjunctivitis, bronze skin discoloration, and maculopapular skin rash are important findings to note, but in this scenario, sunken fontanels take precedence due to the potential severity of dehydration in infants.
5. A client who is at 22 weeks of gestation reports concern about the blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist.
- B. Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
- C. Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D.
- D. Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead. It is most common in dark-skinned women and is caused by an increase in melanotropin during pregnancy. This condition typically appears after 16 weeks of gestation and gradually increases until delivery for 50 to 70% of women. The nurse should reassure the client that this is an expected occurrence, which usually fades after delivery. Therefore, explaining to the client that this is an expected occurrence is the appropriate action in this situation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because chloasma is a common skin change during pregnancy and does not require a referral to a dermatologist, an increase in vitamin D intake, or suspicion of an allergy to skin care products.
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