Nursing Elites

1. A client at 39 weeks of gestation in a prenatal clinic asks about signs preceding labor. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a sign that precedes labor?

• A. Decreased vaginal discharge
• B. A surge of energy
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A surge of energy is a common sign that precedes labor. This burst of energy, often referred to as the 'nesting instinct,' is believed to occur as the body prepares for labor, prompting the individual to undertake tasks to prepare for the arrival of the baby. Decreased vaginal discharge is not a typical sign preceding labor. Urinary retention is not a sign that precedes labor and may indicate another issue. Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg is not a specific sign of impending labor.

2. A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)

• A. Respirations less than 12/min
• B. Urinary output less than 25 mL/hr
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity include respirations less than 12/min, urinary output less than 25 mL/hr, and decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate potential overdose of magnesium sulfate and require immediate attention to prevent further complications. Reporting these signs promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as all the listed findings are indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choices A, B, and C individually represent different signs of toxicity, making them incorrect on their own. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in identifying and reporting all these signs to prevent adverse outcomes.

3. During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?

• A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
• C. Kleihauer-Betke test
• D. Indirect Coombs' test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is a test used to evaluate fetal lung maturity. An L/S ratio greater than 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity. This test helps in determining the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used in screening for neural tube defects, not for assessing lung maturity. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not fetal lung maturity. The Indirect Coombs' test is used to identify the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that could attack fetal red blood cells, not for assessing lung maturity.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
• B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
• C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
• D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.

5. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?

• A. Peanut butter
• B. Potatoes
• C. Apple juice
• D. Broccoli

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.

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