Nursing Elites

1. A client at 11 weeks of gestation reports slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past 2 weeks. Following an examination, the provider informs the client that the fetus has died, indicating a:

• A. Incomplete miscarriage
• B. Missed miscarriage
• C. Inevitable miscarriage
• D. Complete miscarriage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A missed miscarriage, also known as a silent or delayed miscarriage, occurs when the embryo or fetus has died, but no bleeding or contractions have occurred to expel it from the uterus. In this scenario, the client's experiencing slight occasional vaginal bleeding over the past two weeks indicates a missed miscarriage as the fetus has died, but the body has not recognized the loss or expelled the products of conception.

2. A client at 37 weeks of gestation with placenta previa asks the nurse why the provider does not do an internal examination. Which of the following explanations of the primary reason should the nurse provide?

• A. There is an increased risk of introducing infection.
• B. This could initiate preterm labor.
• C. This could result in profound bleeding.
• D. There is an increased risk of rupture of the membranes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Performing an internal examination in a client with placenta previa can lead to significant bleeding due to the proximity of the placenta to the cervical os. This bleeding can be severe and potentially life-threatening. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid any unnecessary manipulation that could disrupt the delicate balance and lead to hemorrhage.

3. A client who experienced a cesarean birth due to dysfunctional labor expresses disappointment for not having a natural childbirth. Which response should the nurse make?

• A. Validate the client's feelings by saying, 'It sounds like you are feeling sad that things didn't go as planned.'
• B. Assure the client by stating, 'At least you know you have a healthy baby.'
• C. Encourage the client by suggesting, 'Maybe next time you can have a vaginal delivery.'
• D. Provide information by saying, 'You can resume sexual relations sooner than if you had delivered vaginally.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge and validate the client's feelings of disappointment. This empathetic approach demonstrates understanding and support for the client's emotional state, fostering a therapeutic nurse-client relationship. Options B, C, and D do not address the client's emotional needs or provide appropriate support in this situation.

4. When reviewing the arterial blood gas values for a client, a nurse notes a pH of 7.32, PaCO2 of 48 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 23 mEq/L. What does this indicate about the acid-base balance?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The given values suggest respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the pH is low (<7.35), PaCO2 is high (>45 mm Hg), and the HCO3 is normal or slightly elevated. In this scenario, the low pH (7.32) and high PaCO2 (48 mm Hg) indicate respiratory acidosis, where there is an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood, leading to acidification of the body fluids.

5. A client who is 4 hours postpartum following a vaginal delivery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Saturated perineal pad in 30 minutes
• B. Deep tendon reflexes 4+
• C. Fundus at the level of the umbilicus
• D. Approximated edges of episiotomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who is 4 hours postpartum, a saturated perineal pad within 30 minutes is a priority finding as it may indicate excessive postpartum bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as hypovolemic shock. Deep tendon reflexes being 4+ is within normal limits postpartum. The fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding at this time frame, indicating proper involution of the uterus. Approximated edges of an episiotomy suggest proper healing.

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