Nursing Elites

1. A nurse receives report about assigned clients at the start of the shift. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to see first?

• A. A client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain
• B. A client who has preeclampsia with a BP of 138/90 mm Hg
• C. A client who experienced a vaginal birth 24 hours ago and reports no bleeding
• D. A client who is scheduled for discharge following a laparoscopic tubal ligation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who experienced a cesarean birth 4 hours ago and reports pain first. Pain assessment and management are crucial post-cesarean birth to ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Immediate attention is needed to address the client's pain and provide appropriate interventions. The other clients may require attention but do not have an immediate postoperative concern like pain following a cesarean birth.

2. A client who is 4 hours postpartum following a vaginal delivery is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. Saturated perineal pad in 30 minutes
• B. Deep tendon reflexes 4+
• C. Fundus at the level of the umbilicus
• D. Approximated edges of episiotomy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client who is 4 hours postpartum, a saturated perineal pad within 30 minutes is a priority finding as it may indicate excessive postpartum bleeding (hemorrhage), which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications such as hypovolemic shock. Deep tendon reflexes being 4+ is within normal limits postpartum. The fundus at the level of the umbilicus is an expected finding at this time frame, indicating proper involution of the uterus. Approximated edges of an episiotomy suggest proper healing.

3. A client is receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to prevent complications? (Select one that doesn't apply.)

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30�.
• B. Apply restraints if the client becomes agitated.
• C. Administer pantoprazole as prescribed.
• D. Reposition the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Repositioning the endotracheal tube to the opposite side of the mouth daily is not a standard practice in preventing complications in a client receiving positive-pressure mechanical ventilation. This action may disrupt the secure placement of the endotracheal tube and increase the risk of complications. Elevating the head of the bed to at least 30� helps prevent aspiration and ventilator-associated pneumonia. Applying restraints if the client becomes agitated helps maintain the safety of the client by preventing self-extubation or accidental dislodgement of tubes. Administering pantoprazole as prescribed helps prevent stress ulcers, a common complication in critically ill patients on mechanical ventilation.

4. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an injection of Rho (D) immunoglobulin. The provider should understand that the purpose of this injection is to prevent which of the following newborn complications?

• A. Hydrops fetalis
• B. Hypobilirubinemia
• C. Biliary atresia
• D. Transient clotting difficulties

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Rho (D) immunoglobulin is given to Rh-negative individuals to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) caused by Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus. If an Rh-negative mother carries an Rh-positive fetus, there is a risk of sensitization during pregnancy or childbirth. Sensitization can lead to the production of antibodies that may attack Rh-positive red blood cells in future pregnancies, potentially causing severe hemolytic disease in the newborn, including complications like hydrops fetalis. Hydrops fetalis is a condition characterized by severe edema and fetal organ enlargement due to severe anemia and heart failure in the fetus.

5. A client at 22 weeks of gestation with uncontrolled gestational diabetes mellitus may require medication. Which of the following medications would the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Acarbose
• B. Repaglinide
• C. Glyburide
• D. Glipizide

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Glyburide is commonly prescribed for gestational diabetes mellitus when diet and exercise are insufficient to control blood sugar levels. It is considered safe and effective during pregnancy, making it a suitable choice for managing diabetes in pregnant individuals. Acarbose, Repaglinide, and Glipizide are not typically recommended for use in pregnancy due to potential risks to the fetus.

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