a nurse is assisting with the care for a client who is at 42 weeks of gestation and is having an ultrasound for which of the following conditions shou
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam

1. A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is "Oligohydramnios". Oligohydramnios, which refers to low amniotic fluid volume, may necessitate amnioinfusion to address the deficiency. Fetal cord compression is another indication for amnioinfusion as it can help alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord. Hydramnios or polyhydramnios, conversely, involve an excess of amniotic fluid and do not typically require amnioinfusion. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this context.

2. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).

3. A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia typically presents with hyperreflexia, not diminished reflexes. Diminished reflexes may indicate other neurological conditions, thus making this finding inconsistent with preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are consistent with preeclampsia. Pitting sacral edema, protein in the urine, and elevated blood pressure are common findings in preeclampsia due to fluid retention, kidney involvement, and hypertension associated with the condition.

4. A client who is 2 days postpartum has a saturated perineal pad with bright red lochia containing small clots. What should the nurse document in the client's medical record?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Moderate lochia rubra.' On the second day postpartum, it is normal for lochia to be bright red and contain small clots, indicating moderate lochia rubra. This amount of bleeding is expected as the uterus continues to shed its lining after childbirth. Excessive lochia serosa, light lochia rubra, and scant lochia serosa do not accurately reflect the described scenario. Excessive lochia serosa is more characteristic of a later postpartum period, while light and scant lochia serosa are not consistent with the bright red color and small clots observed in this case.

5. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and ballottement are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during a vaginal examination. Recognizing these signs is essential for healthcare providers in assessing pregnancy. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they are all probable signs of pregnancy. Choice D is the correct answer as it includes all the expected findings.

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