ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.
- A. Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part.
- B. Determine the location of the fetal back.
- C. Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet.
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct sequence for the nurse to follow when performing Leopold maneuvers is as follows: first, palpate the client's fundus to identify the fetal part, second, determine the location of the fetal back, third, palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet, and finally, palpate the cephalic prominence to identify the attitude of the head. Therefore, option D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as it includes all the steps in the correct sequence. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not represent the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers.
2. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?
- A. Shortly after giving birth
- B. In the third trimester
- C. Immediately
- D. During the next attempt to get pregnant
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.
3. A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?
- A. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG)
- B. Biophysical profile score of 8
- C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
- D. Reactive nonstress test
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An L/S ratio of 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity, as it signifies the presence of surfactant in the amniotic fluid, which helps with lung expansion and prevents collapse at the end of expiration. The absence of PG indicates immaturity of the fetal lungs, as PG appears in the amniotic fluid during the later stages of lung maturation. Biophysical profile scores and nonstress tests are assessments of fetal well-being and do not directly indicate fetal lung maturity. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.
4. A client at 36 weeks of gestation is suspected of having placenta previa. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis?
- A. Painless red vaginal bleeding
- B. Increasing abdominal pain with a non-relaxed uterus
- C. Abdominal pain with scant red vaginal bleeding
- D. Intermittent abdominal pain following the passage of bloody mucus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Painless red vaginal bleeding is a hallmark sign of placenta previa. In this condition, the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening, leading to painless, bright red bleeding due to the separation of the placenta from the uterine wall. Other types of bleeding, such as those associated with abdominal pain or mucus passage, are more indicative of conditions like placental abruption rather than placenta previa. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they describe findings more consistent with placental abruption rather than placenta previa.
5. A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?
- A. Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour.
- B. Obtain a daily weight.
- C. Continuous fetal monitoring
- D. Ambulate twice daily
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating twice daily is not recommended for a client with severe preeclampsia. Clients with severe preeclampsia are at risk for seizures and should be on bed rest to prevent complications. Ambulation can increase blood pressure and the risk of seizure activity in these clients. Assessing deep tendon reflexes, obtaining a daily weight, and continuous fetal monitoring are all appropriate and important interventions for a client with severe preeclampsia to monitor for signs of worsening condition and fetal well-being.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access