Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.

• A. Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part.
• B. Determine the location of the fetal back.
• C. Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet.
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for the nurse to follow when performing Leopold maneuvers is as follows: first, palpate the client's fundus to identify the fetal part, second, determine the location of the fetal back, third, palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet, and finally, palpate the cephalic prominence to identify the attitude of the head. Therefore, option D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as it includes all the steps in the correct sequence. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not represent the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers.

2. A woman at 38 weeks of gestation is admitted in early labor with ruptured membranes. The nurse determines that the client's oral temperature is 38.9°C (102°F). Besides notifying the provider, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?

• A. Recheck the client's temperature in 4 hours.
• B. Administer glucocorticoids intramuscularly.
• C. Assess the odor of the amniotic fluid.
• D. Prepare the client for emergency cesarean section.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An elevated temperature in a woman with ruptured membranes may indicate infection. Assessing the odor of the amniotic fluid can help determine if chorioamnionitis (an infection of the amniotic fluid) is present. This assessment is crucial to guide further interventions and management of the client's condition. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Rechecking the client's temperature in 4 hours does not address the immediate concern of potential infection. Administering glucocorticoids intramuscularly is not indicated based solely on an elevated temperature. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is premature and not supported by the information provided.

3. A nurse in a prenatal clinic overhears a newly licensed nurse discussing conception with a client. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention by the nurse?

• A. Fertilization takes place in the outer third of the fallopian tube.
• B. Implantation occurs between 6 to 10 days after conception.
• C. Sperm remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days.
• D. Bleeding or spotting can accompany implantation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because implantation typically occurs between 6 to 10 days after conception, not 2 to 3 days. It is crucial for the nurse to intervene and provide accurate information to ensure the client receives correct education about conception. Choice A is correct as fertilization does occur in the outer third of the fallopian tube. Choice C is also accurate as sperm can remain viable in the woman's reproductive tract for 2 to 3 days. Choice D is correct as bleeding or spotting can indeed accompany implantation.

4. A client who is at 40 weeks gestation and in active labor has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The client's blood pressure reading is 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?

• A. Prepare for a cesarean birth.
• B. Assist the client to an upright position.
• C. Prepare for an immediate vaginal delivery.
• D. Assist the client to turn onto her side.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Turning the client onto her side is the appropriate nursing intervention in this scenario. This position can help improve blood pressure by enhancing venous return, which may aid in increasing perfusion to vital organs. It can also alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, promoting better circulation and supporting blood pressure stabilization during labor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A cesarean birth is not indicated based on the information provided. Assisting the client to an upright position may worsen her blood pressure due to decreased venous return. Lastly, there is no indication for an immediate vaginal delivery solely based on the client's blood pressure reading.

5. A client presents with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Check the client's capillary refill.
• B. Massage the client's fundus.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for the client.
• D. Prepare the client for a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage, the priority is to address the risk of hypovolemic shock, which can lead to vital organ perfusion compromise and potentially death. Massaging the client's fundus helps to control bleeding by promoting uterine contraction and reducing blood loss, making it the nurse's priority intervention in this situation. Checking capillary refill may be important in assessing perfusion status but is not the priority over controlling the hemorrhage. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Although preparing for a blood transfusion may be necessary, addressing the primary cause of bleeding by massaging the fundus takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.

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