ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn Proctored
1. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?
- A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
- B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
- C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
- D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.
2. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)
- A. Urinary tract infection
- B. Multifetal pregnancy
- C. Oligohydramnios
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Multiple risk factors can contribute to preterm labor, including urinary tract infection, multifetal pregnancy, and oligohydramnios. These factors can lead to the uterus being irritated or overstimulated, potentially triggering early labor. Urinary tract infections can cause inflammation and contractions, multifetal pregnancies have a higher risk of preterm labor due to increased uterine stretching, and oligohydramnios can lead to poor fetal growth and premature contractions. Therefore, clients presenting with these conditions require close monitoring and management to prevent preterm birth. Choices A, B, and C are all correct risk factors for preterm labor, making option D the correct answer.
3. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)
- A. Decreased fetal movement
- B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
- C. Postmaturity
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.
4. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?
- A. Betamethasone
- B. Indomethacin
- C. Nifedipine
- D. Methylergonovine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.
5. When calculating the Apgar score of a newborn at 1 minute after delivery, which of the following findings would result in a score of 6?
- A. 4
- B. 5
- C. 6
- D. 7
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the newborn's findings at 1 minute after delivery indicate a heart rate >100/min (2 points), slow, weak cry (1 point), some flexion of extremities (1 point), grimace in response to suctioning (1 point), and body pink with blue extremities (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total Apgar score of 6, reflecting the newborn's initial assessment for their overall well-being. Choice A (4) is too low based on the given findings, while Choice B (5) is also lower than the correct score of 6. Choice D (7) is too high as it would require additional findings to reach that score.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access