ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring with a newly licensed nurse, which statement should a nurse include?
- A. Count the fetal heart rate for 15 seconds to determine the baseline.
- B. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor.
- C. Count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes.
- D. Auscultate the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When discussing intermittent fetal heart monitoring, it is crucial to count the fetal heart rate after a contraction to determine baseline changes. This practice allows for the assessment of variations in the fetal heart rate pattern associated with uterine contractions. Monitoring the fetal heart rate after contractions provides valuable insights into fetal well-being and potential distress. Option A is incorrect because determining the baseline involves assessing the fetal heart rate over a more extended period. Option B is incorrect as auscultation every 5 minutes during the active phase of the first stage of labor is too frequent for intermittent monitoring. Option D is incorrect as auscultating the fetal heart rate every 30 minutes during the second stage of labor is too infrequent for proper monitoring of fetal well-being.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?
- A. Respiratory distress
- B. Hypothermia
- C. Accidental lacerations
- D. Acrocyanosis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. Assessing for respiratory distress is the priority when evaluating a newborn after a cesarean delivery. Newborns born via cesarean section are at higher risk for respiratory complications, making it crucial to monitor their breathing and ensure proper oxygenation immediately after birth. Choice B, hypothermia, is important too but assessing breathing takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply. Choices C and D, accidental lacerations and acrocyanosis, are not the immediate priorities following a cesarean delivery.
3. A client is receiving postpartum discharge teaching after being vaccinated for varicella due to lack of immunity. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?
- A. I will need a second vaccination at my postpartum visit.
- B. I need a second vaccination at my postpartum visit.
- C. I was given the vaccine to protect myself from varicella.
- D. I will be tested in 3 months to confirm my immunity status.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client needs a second varicella vaccination at the postpartum visit to ensure immunity. Option A is incorrect as it implies a future need for a second vaccination without a clear action plan. Option C is incorrect as the varicella vaccine is primarily for the client's protection, not others. Option D is not the appropriate action as waiting to be tested for immunity delays the necessary second vaccination.
4. A client is learning how to check basal temperature to determine ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?
- A. On days 13 to 17 of her menstrual cycle
- B. Every morning before arising
- C. 1 hour following intercourse
- D. Before going to bed every night
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The basal body temperature should be taken every morning before arising as it provides the most accurate reading. This time ensures consistency and eliminates variations that may occur throughout the day due to activities or environmental factors. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation can vary among individuals, and checking temperature on specific days may not align with the actual ovulation day. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between intercourse and basal body temperature. Choice D is incorrect because taking the temperature before going to bed does not provide a consistent baseline reading.
5. During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?
- A. Vomiting
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Respiratory depression
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to the vasodilation effect of the medication. Epidural anesthesia can lead to vasodilation, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This hypotension may result in decreased perfusion to vital organs and compromise maternal and fetal well-being. Tachycardia is less likely as a complication of epidural anesthesia since it tends to have a vasodilatory effect. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with other forms of anesthesia, such as general anesthesia, rather than epidural anesthesia. Vomiting is not typically a direct complication of epidural anesthesia and is more commonly seen with other factors such as pain or medications given during labor.
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