Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing education about family bonding to parents who recently adopted a newborn. The nurse should make which of the following suggestions to aid the family's 7-year-old child in accepting the new family member?

• A. Allow the sibling to hold the newborn during a bath.
• B. Make sure the sibling kisses the newborn each night.
• C. Obtain a gift from the newborn to present to the sibling.
• D. Switch the sibling's room with the nursery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To help a 7-year-old child accept a new family member, it is important to involve them in the process. Obtaining a gift from the newborn to present to the sibling is a thoughtful gesture that can make the older child feel included and valued in the family dynamic. This strategy fosters a sense of connection and understanding between the siblings, promoting acceptance and bonding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly involve the older sibling in a positive and inclusive manner. Allowing the sibling to hold the newborn during a bath or making them kiss the newborn might not resonate well with the 7-year-old and could potentially create negative feelings. Switching the sibling's room with the nursery is a major change that may not necessarily promote acceptance and bonding, and it could lead to feelings of displacement or confusion.

2. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

3. A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)

• A. Joint pain
• B. Malaise
• C. Rash
• D. Tender lymph nodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A TORCH infection can cause joint pain, malaise, rash, and tender lymph nodes. These findings are characteristic of TORCH infections and are important to recognize in pregnant individuals as they can have serious implications for both the mother and the fetus. While joint pain, malaise, and rash can be present in TORCH infections, tender lymph nodes are a common finding that the healthcare provider should expect. Tender lymph nodes are often associated with the inflammatory response to infection and can be palpated during a physical examination. Therefore, in this scenario, the healthcare provider should anticipate the presence of tender lymph nodes in a client with a TORCH infection, making option D the correct answer.

4. A client has postpartum psychosis. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Reinforce the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed
• B. Ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant
• C. Monitor the infant for signs of failure to thrive
• D. Check the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client has postpartum psychosis, the priority action for the nurse is to ask the client if they have thoughts of harming themselves or their infant. This is crucial to assess the risk of harm and ensure the safety of the client and the infant. While reinforcing the importance of taking antipsychotics as prescribed is essential for treatment, safety concerns take precedence. Monitoring the infant for signs of failure to thrive is important for the infant's well-being but is not the priority when the immediate safety of the client and infant is at risk. Checking the client's medical record for a history of bipolar disorder is relevant for understanding the client's medical history but is not the priority when addressing current safety concerns.

5. A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs.
• B. A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse.
• C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne.
• D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This statement demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of proper condom use to maximize protection. Choice B is incorrect because a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure contraceptive effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in some cases. Choice D is incorrect because a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.

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