Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving postpartum discharge teaching after being vaccinated for varicella due to lack of immunity. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

• A. I will need a second vaccination at my postpartum visit.
• B. I need a second vaccination at my postpartum visit.
• C. I was given the vaccine to protect myself from varicella.
• D. I will be tested in 3 months to confirm my immunity status.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client needs a second varicella vaccination at the postpartum visit to ensure immunity. Option A is incorrect as it implies a future need for a second vaccination without a clear action plan. Option C is incorrect as the varicella vaccine is primarily for the client's protection, not others. Option D is not the appropriate action as waiting to be tested for immunity delays the necessary second vaccination.

2. A client is scheduled for a cesarean birth based on fetal lung maturity. Which finding indicates that the fetal lungs are mature?

• A. Absence of Phosphatidylglycerol (PG)
• B. Biophysical profile score of 8
• C. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1
• D. Reactive nonstress test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An L/S ratio of 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity, as it signifies the presence of surfactant in the amniotic fluid, which helps with lung expansion and prevents collapse at the end of expiration. The absence of PG indicates immaturity of the fetal lungs, as PG appears in the amniotic fluid during the later stages of lung maturation. Biophysical profile scores and nonstress tests are assessments of fetal well-being and do not directly indicate fetal lung maturity. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.

3. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Your son may not have been ready for toilet training and should wear training pants.
• B. Your son is displaying an adverse sibling response.
• C. Your son may benefit from counseling.
• D. Consider enrolling your son in preschool to address the behavior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

4. A client who underwent an amniotomy is now in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement with this client?

• A. Maintain the client in the lithotomy position.
• B. Perform vaginal examinations frequently.
• C. Remind the client to bear down with each contraction.
• D. Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours is essential during labor to prevent bladder distention, which can hinder labor progress and cause discomfort. A distended bladder can also lead to potential complications such as uterine atony or increased risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect as maintaining the client in the lithotomy position is not necessary during the active phase of the first stage of labor and may not be comfortable for the client. Choice B is incorrect because performing vaginal examinations frequently can increase the risk of introducing infection and disrupt the natural progress of labor. Choice C is incorrect as bearing down with each contraction is typically reserved for the second stage of labor when the cervix is fully dilated, not during the active phase of the first stage.

5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every hour.
• B. Restrict the total hourly intake to 200 mL.
• C. Monitor the FHR continuously.
• D. Administer protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion, it is crucial to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) continuously. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures and is considered a high-alert medication that requires close monitoring, especially of FHR and uterine contractions. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every hour, as in choice A, is important but not as crucial as continuous FHR monitoring. Restricting the total hourly intake to 200 mL, as in choice B, is not a relevant intervention for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Administering protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity, as in choice D, is incorrect as protamine sulfate is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.

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