Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving postpartum discharge teaching after being vaccinated for varicella due to lack of immunity. Which statement by the client indicates understanding?

• A. I will need a second vaccination at my postpartum visit.
• B. I need a second vaccination at my postpartum visit.
• C. I was given the vaccine to protect myself from varicella.
• D. I will be tested in 3 months to confirm my immunity status.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client needs a second varicella vaccination at the postpartum visit to ensure immunity. Option A is incorrect as it implies a future need for a second vaccination without a clear action plan. Option C is incorrect as the varicella vaccine is primarily for the client's protection, not others. Option D is not the appropriate action as waiting to be tested for immunity delays the necessary second vaccination.

2. A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?

• A. Ice water
• B. Low-fat or whole milk
• C. Tea or coffee
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Orange juice.' Orange juice is recommended to be taken with iron supplements because vitamin C present in orange juice enhances iron absorption, improving the effectiveness of the supplement. It is essential to take iron supplements with a source of vitamin C to optimize iron absorption and address iron deficiency anemia. Ice water (Choice A), low-fat or whole milk (Choice B), and tea or coffee (Choice C) are not ideal choices to take with iron supplements as they do not contain vitamin C, which is crucial for enhancing iron absorption.

3. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
• B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
• C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
• D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.

4. A client who is at 40 weeks gestation and in active labor has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The client's blood pressure reading is 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?

• A. Prepare for a cesarean birth.
• B. Assist the client to an upright position.
• C. Prepare for an immediate vaginal delivery.
• D. Assist the client to turn onto her side.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Turning the client onto her side is the appropriate nursing intervention in this scenario. This position can help improve blood pressure by enhancing venous return, which may aid in increasing perfusion to vital organs. It can also alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, promoting better circulation and supporting blood pressure stabilization during labor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A cesarean birth is not indicated based on the information provided. Assisting the client to an upright position may worsen her blood pressure due to decreased venous return. Lastly, there is no indication for an immediate vaginal delivery solely based on the client's blood pressure reading.

5. During ambulation to the bathroom, a postpartum client experiences a gush of dark red blood that soon stops. On data collection, a nurse finds the uterus to be firm, midline, and at the level of the umbilicus. Which of the following findings should the nurse interpret this data as being?

• A. Evidence of a possible vaginal hematoma
• B. An indication of a cervical or perineal laceration
• C. A normal postpartum discharge of lochia
• D. Abnormally excessive lochia rubra flow

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should interpret this data as a normal postpartum discharge of lochia. Lochia is the normal vaginal discharge after childbirth, and the gush of dark red blood upon ambulation is typical due to the pooling of blood in the vagina when lying down, which is then released upon standing. The firm, midline uterus at the level of the umbilicus indicates normal involution of the uterus postpartum. Therefore, this scenario is consistent with the expected postpartum physiological changes rather than complications like hematoma, lacerations, or abnormal excessive bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the described findings are more indicative of normal postpartum processes rather than complications such as vaginal hematoma, lacerations, or excessive bleeding.

Similar Questions