Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein test at 15 weeks of gestation. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this test. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. This test screens for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus.
• B. It assesses various markers of fetal well-being.
• C. This test identifies an Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus.
• D. It is a screening test for spinal defects in the fetus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) test is performed around 15-18 weeks of gestation to screen for neural tube defects and other developmental abnormalities in the fetus, not to assess fetal lung maturity, markers of fetal well-being, or Rh incompatibility between the mother and fetus. Choice A is the correct answer as it accurately reflects the purpose of the MSAFP test. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the primary goal of this screening test.

2. A healthcare professional is discussing risk factors for urinary tract infections with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following conditions should the healthcare professional include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)

• A. Epidural anesthesia
• B. Urinary bladder catheterization
• C. Frequent pelvic examinations
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Urinary tract infections can be influenced by various factors. Epidural anesthesia, urinary bladder catheterization, and frequent pelvic examinations are all associated with an increased risk of UTIs. Epidural anesthesia can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, urinary bladder catheterization can serve as a pathway for bacteria to enter the bladder, and frequent pelvic examinations can disrupt the natural flora and introduce bacteria. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be aware of these risk factors to help prevent and manage UTIs effectively. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as all the listed conditions are significant risk factors for urinary tract infections. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them, when present, can contribute to the development of UTIs. It is essential for healthcare professionals to educate patients and colleagues about these risk factors to minimize the occurrence of UTIs.

3. When checking for the Moro reflex in a newborn, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Hold the newborn vertically under arms and allow one foot to touch the table.
• B. Stimulate the pads of the newborn's hands with stroking or massage.
• C. Stimulate the soles of the newborn's feet on the outer lateral surface of each foot.
• D. Hold the newborn in a semi-sitting position, then allow the newborn's head and trunk to fall backward.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to check for the Moro reflex in a newborn is to hold the newborn in a semi-sitting position and then allow the newborn's head and trunk to fall backward. The Moro reflex is elicited by a sudden loss of support or a loud noise. The normal response involves symmetrical abduction and extension of the arms, followed by their return to the midline in an embracing motion. Choices A, B, and C do not describe the correct method for assessing the Moro reflex and are therefore incorrect.

4. A client at 39 weeks of gestation in a prenatal clinic asks about signs preceding labor. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a sign that precedes labor?

• A. Decreased vaginal discharge
• B. A surge of energy
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A surge of energy is a common sign that precedes labor. This burst of energy, often referred to as the 'nesting instinct,' is believed to occur as the body prepares for labor, prompting the individual to undertake tasks to prepare for the arrival of the baby. Decreased vaginal discharge is not a typical sign preceding labor. Urinary retention is not a sign that precedes labor and may indicate another issue. Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg is not a specific sign of impending labor.

5. When assessing a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who received synthetic surfactant, which parameter should the nurse monitor to evaluate the newborn's condition?

• A. Oxygen saturation
• B. Body temperature
• C. Serum bilirubin
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who has received synthetic surfactant, monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Oxygen saturation levels provide valuable information about the newborn's respiratory status and the adequacy of gas exchange. Changes in oxygen saturation can indicate improvements or deterioration in the newborn's condition following the administration of synthetic surfactant. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess the newborn's response to treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Body temperature, serum bilirubin, and heart rate are important parameters to monitor in newborns for other conditions but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of synthetic surfactant in treating respiratory distress syndrome.

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