ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn
1. During ambulation to the bathroom, a postpartum client experiences a gush of dark red blood that soon stops. On data collection, a nurse finds the uterus to be firm, midline, and at the level of the umbilicus. Which of the following findings should the nurse interpret this data as being?
- A. Evidence of a possible vaginal hematoma
- B. An indication of a cervical or perineal laceration
- C. A normal postpartum discharge of lochia
- D. Abnormally excessive lochia rubra flow
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should interpret this data as a normal postpartum discharge of lochia. Lochia is the normal vaginal discharge after childbirth, and the gush of dark red blood upon ambulation is typical due to the pooling of blood in the vagina when lying down, which is then released upon standing. The firm, midline uterus at the level of the umbilicus indicates normal involution of the uterus postpartum. Therefore, this scenario is consistent with the expected postpartum physiological changes rather than complications like hematoma, lacerations, or abnormal excessive bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the described findings are more indicative of normal postpartum processes rather than complications such as vaginal hematoma, lacerations, or excessive bleeding.
2. A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?
- A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
- B. 3+ protein in the urine
- C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
- D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia typically presents with hyperreflexia, not diminished reflexes. Diminished reflexes may indicate other neurological conditions, thus making this finding inconsistent with preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are consistent with preeclampsia. Pitting sacral edema, protein in the urine, and elevated blood pressure are common findings in preeclampsia due to fluid retention, kidney involvement, and hypertension associated with the condition.
3. A client has a new prescription for chlamydia. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?
- A. This infection is treated with one dose of azithromycin.
- B. If your sexual partner has no symptoms, no medication is needed.
- C. You should avoid sexual relations for 3 days.
- D. You need to return in 6 months for retesting.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct treatment for chlamydia is a one-time dose of azithromycin. It is crucial for the client to understand the correct medication regimen for effective treatment. Choice B is incorrect because treatment is necessary for the partner even if asymptomatic. Choice C is incorrect because sexual relations should be avoided until treatment is completed. Choice D is incorrect as retesting should generally occur 3 months after treatment.
4. A client is to receive oxytocin to augment labor. Which finding contraindicates the initiation of the oxytocin infusion and should be reported to the provider?
- A. Late decelerations
- B. Moderate variability of the FHR
- C. Cessation of uterine dilation
- D. Prolonged active phase of labor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Late decelerations are indicative of uteroplacental insufficiency, which can be exacerbated by oxytocin administration, potentially compromising fetal well-being. Therefore, detecting late decelerations should prompt immediate reporting to the provider to prevent harm to the fetus. Choices B, C, and D are not contraindications for initiating oxytocin infusion. Moderate variability of the FHR is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being, cessation of uterine dilation may indicate a pause in labor progress but does not contraindicate oxytocin, and prolonged active phase of labor may necessitate oxytocin administration to augment contractions and progress labor.
5. When calculating the Apgar score of a newborn at 1 minute after delivery, which of the following findings would result in a score of 6?
- A. 4
- B. 5
- C. 6
- D. 7
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the newborn's findings at 1 minute after delivery indicate a heart rate >100/min (2 points), slow, weak cry (1 point), some flexion of extremities (1 point), grimace in response to suctioning (1 point), and body pink with blue extremities (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total Apgar score of 6, reflecting the newborn's initial assessment for their overall well-being. Choice A (4) is too low based on the given findings, while Choice B (5) is also lower than the correct score of 6. Choice D (7) is too high as it would require additional findings to reach that score.
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