Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a newborn immediately following a scheduled cesarean delivery. Which of the following assessments is the healthcare professional's priority?

• A. Respiratory distress
• B. Hypothermia
• C. Accidental lacerations
• D. Acrocyanosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Respiratory distress. Assessing for respiratory distress is the priority when evaluating a newborn after a cesarean delivery. Newborns born via cesarean section are at higher risk for respiratory complications, making it crucial to monitor their breathing and ensure proper oxygenation immediately after birth. Choice B, hypothermia, is important too but assessing breathing takes precedence to ensure adequate oxygen supply. Choices C and D, accidental lacerations and acrocyanosis, are not the immediate priorities following a cesarean delivery.

2. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?

• A. Shortly after giving birth
• B. In the third trimester
• C. Immediately
• D. During the next attempt to get pregnant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.

3. A client in active labor reports back pain while being examined by a nurse who finds her to be 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced, -2 station, and in the occiput posterior position. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Perform effleurage during contractions.
• B. Place the client in lithotomy position.
• C. Assist the client to the hands and knees position.
• D. Apply a scalp electrode to the fetus.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should assist the client into the hands and knees position during contractions to help relieve her back pain and facilitate the rotation of the fetus from the posterior to an anterior occiput position. This position can aid in optimal fetal positioning for delivery. Choice A, performing effleurage, is a massage technique that may provide comfort but does not address the fetal position. Placing the client in lithotomy position (Choice B) may not be ideal for a client experiencing back pain due to the occiput posterior position. Applying a scalp electrode to the fetus (Choice D) is not indicated solely for addressing the client's back pain.

4. A client in active labor is irritable, reports the urge to have a bowel movement, vomits, and states, 'I've had enough. I can't do this anymore.' Which of the following stages of labor is the client experiencing?

• A. Second stage
• B. Fourth stage
• C. Transition phase
• D. Latent phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client in active labor displaying irritability, the urge to have a bowel movement, nausea, vomiting, and expressing frustration indicates that they are in the transition phase of labor. This phase typically occurs just before entering the second stage of labor, marked by intense contractions and cervical dilation from 8 to 10 centimeters. During this phase, the client may feel overwhelmed, exhausted, and may express a sense of losing control. It is a crucial phase indicating that the client is close to delivering the baby. Choice A, the second stage of labor, is characterized by complete cervical dilation and the birth of the baby, not the symptoms described in the scenario. Choice B, the fourth stage, is the period following the delivery of the placenta, not the phase before giving birth. Choice D, the latent phase, is the early phase of labor where contractions are mild and occur at irregular intervals, not the phase described in the scenario.

5. A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?

• A. These exercises facilitate preventing constipation.
• B. These exercises aid pelvic muscle stretching during birth.
• C. They assist in decreasing backaches.
• D. They can prevent additional stretch marks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kegel exercises are beneficial during pregnancy to help strengthen pelvic muscles, which is crucial for childbirth. Pelvic muscle stretching during birth is a key aspect of labor, making choice B the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Kegel exercises primarily focus on strengthening pelvic floor muscles to support the uterus, bladder, and bowel, aiding in labor and delivery. They are not directly related to preventing constipation, decreasing backaches, or preventing stretch marks.

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