ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching with a client about a new prescription for medroxyprogesterone. Which of the following information should the provider include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)
- A. Weight fluctuations can occur.
- B. Irregular vaginal spotting can occur.
- C. You should increase your intake of calcium.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When educating a client about medroxyprogesterone, it is important to include information about potential side effects and recommendations. Weight fluctuations and irregular vaginal spotting are common side effects of medroxyprogesterone. Additionally, increasing calcium intake is often advised to counteract the potential bone density loss associated with this medication. Therefore, all the statements provided are correct, making option D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all essential pieces of information that the healthcare provider should convey to the client regarding medroxyprogesterone.
2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)
- A. Chadwick's sign
- B. Goodell's sign
- C. Ballottement
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and ballottement are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during a vaginal examination. Recognizing these signs is essential for healthcare providers in assessing pregnancy. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they are all probable signs of pregnancy. Choice D is the correct answer as it includes all the expected findings.
3. A client in active labor is irritable, reports the urge to have a bowel movement, vomits, and states, 'I've had enough. I can't do this anymore.' Which of the following stages of labor is the client experiencing?
- A. Second stage
- B. Fourth stage
- C. Transition phase
- D. Latent phase
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client in active labor displaying irritability, the urge to have a bowel movement, nausea, vomiting, and expressing frustration indicates that they are in the transition phase of labor. This phase typically occurs just before entering the second stage of labor, marked by intense contractions and cervical dilation from 8 to 10 centimeters. During this phase, the client may feel overwhelmed, exhausted, and may express a sense of losing control. It is a crucial phase indicating that the client is close to delivering the baby. Choice A, the second stage of labor, is characterized by complete cervical dilation and the birth of the baby, not the symptoms described in the scenario. Choice B, the fourth stage, is the period following the delivery of the placenta, not the phase before giving birth. Choice D, the latent phase, is the early phase of labor where contractions are mild and occur at irregular intervals, not the phase described in the scenario.
4. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?
- A. Peanut butter
- B. Potatoes
- C. Apple juice
- D. Broccoli
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.
5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every hour.
- B. Restrict the total hourly intake to 200 mL.
- C. Monitor the FHR continuously.
- D. Administer protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion, it is crucial to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) continuously. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures and is considered a high-alert medication that requires close monitoring, especially of FHR and uterine contractions. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every hour, as in choice A, is important but not as crucial as continuous FHR monitoring. Restricting the total hourly intake to 200 mL, as in choice B, is not a relevant intervention for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Administering protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity, as in choice D, is incorrect as protamine sulfate is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
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