Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reinforcing teaching with a client about a new prescription for medroxyprogesterone. Which of the following information should the provider include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)

• A. Weight fluctuations can occur.
• B. Irregular vaginal spotting can occur.
• C. You should increase your intake of calcium.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating a client about medroxyprogesterone, it is important to include information about potential side effects and recommendations. Weight fluctuations and irregular vaginal spotting are common side effects of medroxyprogesterone. Additionally, increasing calcium intake is often advised to counteract the potential bone density loss associated with this medication. Therefore, all the statements provided are correct, making option D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are all essential pieces of information that the healthcare provider should convey to the client regarding medroxyprogesterone.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing fetal heart tones for a pregnant client. The provider has determined the fetal position as left occipital anterior. To which of the following areas of the client's abdomen should the provider apply the ultrasound transducer to assess the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart?

• A. Left upper quadrant
• B. Right upper quadrant
• C. Left lower quadrant
• D. Right lower quadrant

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When the fetal position is left occipital anterior, the point of maximum intensity of the fetal heart is best heard in the left lower quadrant of the client's abdomen. Placing the ultrasound transducer in the left lower quadrant allows for optimal detection of fetal heart tones in this specific fetal position. Choice A (Left upper quadrant) is incorrect as it is not where the fetal heart tones are best heard in this scenario. Choice B (Right upper quadrant) is also incorrect as it is not the recommended area for assessing fetal heart tones in a left occipital anterior position. Choice D (Right lower quadrant) is incorrect as the focus should be on the left side due to the fetal position mentioned.

3. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?

• A. Placenta previa
• B. Prolapsed cord
• C. Incompetent cervix
• D. Abruptio placentae

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.

4. A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs.
• B. A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse.
• C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne.
• D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This statement demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of proper condom use to maximize protection. Choice B is incorrect because a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure contraceptive effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in some cases. Choice D is incorrect because a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.

5. When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds
• B. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes
• C. Contractions are strong in intensity
• D. Client reports feeling contractions in the lower back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes are within the normal range for the active phase of labor. Strong contractions and feeling contractions in the lower back are common experiences during labor and not necessarily concerning unless associated with other complications.

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