ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn
1. When assessing a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who received synthetic surfactant, which parameter should the nurse monitor to evaluate the newborn's condition?
- A. Oxygen saturation
- B. Body temperature
- C. Serum bilirubin
- D. Heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who has received synthetic surfactant, monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Oxygen saturation levels provide valuable information about the newborn's respiratory status and the adequacy of gas exchange. Changes in oxygen saturation can indicate improvements or deterioration in the newborn's condition following the administration of synthetic surfactant. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess the newborn's response to treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Body temperature, serum bilirubin, and heart rate are important parameters to monitor in newborns for other conditions but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of synthetic surfactant in treating respiratory distress syndrome.
2. A client who is 3 days postpartum is receiving education on effective breastfeeding. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Your milk will replace colostrum in about 10 days.
- B. Your breasts should feel firm after breastfeeding.
- C. Your newborn should urinate at least 10 times per day.
- D. Your newborn should appear content after each feeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse should inform the client that a baby who is sated will appear content after feedings. This indicates that the baby is effectively emptying the breasts during feedings. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Breast milk replaces colostrum within a few days, not 10 days. B) Breasts feeling firm after breastfeeding may indicate engorgement or plugged ducts, not necessarily effective breastfeeding. C) While the frequency of urination is important, it is not directly related to effective breastfeeding.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)
- A. Chadwick's sign
- B. Goodell's sign
- C. Ballottement
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and ballottement are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during a vaginal examination. Recognizing these signs is essential for healthcare providers in assessing pregnancy. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they are all probable signs of pregnancy. Choice D is the correct answer as it includes all the expected findings.
4. A newborn was delivered vaginally and experienced a tight nuchal cord. Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to observe?
- A. Bruising over the buttocks
- B. Hard nodules on the roof of the mouth
- C. Petechiae over the head
- D. Bilateral periauricular papillomas
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a newborn experiences a tight nuchal cord during delivery, it can lead to petechiae, which are small red or purple spots on the skin caused by bleeding under the skin. These petechiae may appear over the head, face, and neck due to the pressure of the cord. It is essential for the nurse to recognize this as a possible consequence and monitor the newborn for any signs of complications. Bruising over the buttocks (Choice A) is not typically associated with a tight nuchal cord. Hard nodules on the roof of the mouth (Choice B) are more indicative of Epstein pearls or Bohn's nodules, which are considered normal findings in newborns. Bilateral periauricular papillomas (Choice D) are not related to a tight nuchal cord but are seen in congenital syphilis.
5. During active labor, a nurse notes tachycardia on the external fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a potential cause of the heart rate?
- A. Maternal fever
- B. Fetal heart failure
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia
- D. Fetal head compression
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Maternal fever can lead to fetal tachycardia due to the transmission of maternal fever to the fetus. This can result in an increased fetal heart rate, making it the correct potential cause in this scenario. Fetal heart failure (choice B) would typically present with bradycardia rather than tachycardia, making it an incorrect choice. Maternal hypoglycemia (choice C) is more likely to cause fetal distress rather than tachycardia. Fetal head compression (choice D) may lead to decelerations in the fetal heart rate pattern, but not necessarily tachycardia.
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