Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who received synthetic surfactant, which parameter should the nurse monitor to evaluate the newborn's condition?

• A. Oxygen saturation
• B. Body temperature
• C. Serum bilirubin
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome who has received synthetic surfactant, monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment. Oxygen saturation levels provide valuable information about the newborn's respiratory status and the adequacy of gas exchange. Changes in oxygen saturation can indicate improvements or deterioration in the newborn's condition following the administration of synthetic surfactant. Monitoring oxygen saturation helps the nurse assess the newborn's response to treatment and make timely interventions if needed. Body temperature, serum bilirubin, and heart rate are important parameters to monitor in newborns for other conditions but are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of synthetic surfactant in treating respiratory distress syndrome.

2. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about the physiological changes that occur during pregnancy. The client is at 10 weeks of gestation and has a BMI within the expected reference range. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should gain more than 15 to 20 pounds during my pregnancy.
• B. I will likely need to use alternative positions for sexual intercourse.
• C. I'm glad I had a breast reduction years ago so they will not enlarge with my pregnancy.
• D. I'm glad I have a light complexion and will not get any stretch marks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During pregnancy, weight gain is expected. The client's understanding is demonstrated by acknowledging the need for alternative sexual positions due to the physiological changes, such as weight gain and a growing abdomen. This statement reflects comprehension of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider.

3. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?

• A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
• B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
• C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
• D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.

4. When educating a pregnant client about potential complications, which manifestation should the nurse emphasize reporting to the provider promptly?

• A. Vaginal bleeding
• B. Swelling of the ankles
• C. Heartburn after eating
• D. Lightheadedness when lying on back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is a concerning sign that could indicate serious complications like miscarriage or placental issues. Prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Swelling of the ankles (choice B), heartburn after eating (choice C), and lightheadedness when lying on the back (choice D) are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious complications that require immediate attention.

5. A client in a prenatal clinic is receiving education from a nurse and mentions, 'I don't like milk.' Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend as a good source of calcium?

• A. Dark green leafy vegetables
• B. Deep red or orange vegetables
• C. White bread and rice
• D. Meat, poultry, and fish

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dark green leafy vegetables are rich in calcium, making them an excellent alternative source for individuals who dislike or cannot consume dairy products. Calcium is crucial for bone health, particularly during pregnancy, to support the developing fetus and maintain the mother's bone strength. Therefore, recommending dark green leafy vegetables ensures the client receives an adequate intake of calcium despite not liking milk. Choice B, deep red or orange vegetables, are not typically high in calcium. Choice C, white bread and rice, are not significant sources of calcium. Choice D, meat, poultry, and fish, are good sources of protein but do not provide as much calcium as dark green leafy vegetables.

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