Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an indication of hypoglycemia?

• A. Hypertonia
• B. Increased feeding
• C. Hyperthermia
• D. Respiratory distress

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, respiratory distress, as it is a clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Other signs of hypoglycemia include an abnormal cry, jitteriness, lethargy, poor feeding, apnea, and seizures. Hypertonia, increased feeding, and hyperthermia are not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Hypertonia is more indicative of neurological issues, increased feeding is not a common sign of hypoglycemia, and hyperthermia is not a typical symptom of low blood sugar.

2. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

3. A client is being cared for 2 hours after a spontaneous vaginal birth and has saturated two perineal pads with blood in a 30-minute period. Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention at this time?

• A. Palpate the client's uterine fundus.
• B. Assist the client to a bedpan to urinate.
• C. Prepare to administer oxytocic medication.
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this situation is to palpate the client's uterine fundus. A boggy uterus that is not well contracted may indicate uterine atony, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Palpating the fundus and massaging it if it is boggy helps to promote contractions and reduce bleeding, making it the most critical intervention to address the potential underlying issue. Assisting the client to a bedpan to urinate, preparing to administer oxytocic medication, or increasing the client's fluid intake are not the immediate priorities in this scenario compared to assessing and addressing the uterine fundus status.

4. During active labor, a nurse notes tachycardia on the external fetal monitor tracing. Which of the following conditions should the nurse identify as a potential cause of the heart rate?

• A. Maternal fever
• B. Fetal heart failure
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia
• D. Fetal head compression

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maternal fever can lead to fetal tachycardia due to the transmission of maternal fever to the fetus. This can result in an increased fetal heart rate, making it the correct potential cause in this scenario. Fetal heart failure (choice B) would typically present with bradycardia rather than tachycardia, making it an incorrect choice. Maternal hypoglycemia (choice C) is more likely to cause fetal distress rather than tachycardia. Fetal head compression (choice D) may lead to decelerations in the fetal heart rate pattern, but not necessarily tachycardia.

5. A client who is 2 days postpartum reports that their 4-year-old son, who was previously toilet trained, is now wetting himself frequently. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. Your son may not have been ready for toilet training and should wear training pants.
• B. Your son is displaying an adverse sibling response.
• C. Your son may benefit from counseling.
• D. Consider enrolling your son in preschool to address the behavior.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The regression in toilet training is a common adverse sibling response to the birth of a new baby. When a new sibling arrives, the older child may revert to behaviors from an earlier stage, such as bedwetting, to gain attention or cope with feelings of insecurity. This behavior is temporary and often resolves with time and reassurance. Recommending counseling or preschool at this point would be premature and not addressing the underlying cause of the behavior.

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