ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a late preterm newborn. Which of the following clinical manifestations is an indication of hypoglycemia?
- A. Hypertonia
- B. Increased feeding
- C. Hyperthermia
- D. Respiratory distress
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, respiratory distress, as it is a clinical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Other signs of hypoglycemia include an abnormal cry, jitteriness, lethargy, poor feeding, apnea, and seizures. Hypertonia, increased feeding, and hyperthermia are not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Hypertonia is more indicative of neurological issues, increased feeding is not a common sign of hypoglycemia, and hyperthermia is not a typical symptom of low blood sugar.
2. A client in active labor reports back pain while being examined by a nurse who finds her to be 8 cm dilated, 100% effaced, -2 station, and in the occiput posterior position. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Perform effleurage during contractions.
- B. Place the client in lithotomy position.
- C. Assist the client to the hands and knees position.
- D. Apply a scalp electrode to the fetus.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should assist the client into the hands and knees position during contractions to help relieve her back pain and facilitate the rotation of the fetus from the posterior to an anterior occiput position. This position can aid in optimal fetal positioning for delivery. Choice A, performing effleurage, is a massage technique that may provide comfort but does not address the fetal position. Placing the client in lithotomy position (Choice B) may not be ideal for a client experiencing back pain due to the occiput posterior position. Applying a scalp electrode to the fetus (Choice D) is not indicated solely for addressing the client's back pain.
3. When monitoring uterine contractions in a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds
- B. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes
- C. Contractions are strong in intensity
- D. Client reports feeling contractions in the lower back
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During the active phase of the first stage of labor, contractions lasting longer than 90 seconds can indicate uterine hyperstimulation, leading to decreased placental perfusion and fetal oxygenation. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority findings in this scenario. Contractions occurring every 3 to 5 minutes are within the normal range for the active phase of labor. Strong contractions and feeling contractions in the lower back are common experiences during labor and not necessarily concerning unless associated with other complications.
4. A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. You will lie on your right side during the procedure.
- B. You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure.
- C. You should empty your bladder before the procedure.
- D. The test is performed to determine gestational age.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should advise the client to empty her bladder before an amniocentesis to minimize the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. This precaution helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure by reducing potential complications related to bladder puncture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lying on the right side, fasting for 24 hours, and determining gestational age are not relevant instructions for an amniocentesis procedure.
5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every hour.
- B. Restrict the total hourly intake to 200 mL.
- C. Monitor the FHR continuously.
- D. Administer protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion, it is crucial to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) continuously. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures and is considered a high-alert medication that requires close monitoring, especially of FHR and uterine contractions. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every hour, as in choice A, is important but not as crucial as continuous FHR monitoring. Restricting the total hourly intake to 200 mL, as in choice B, is not a relevant intervention for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Administering protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity, as in choice D, is incorrect as protamine sulfate is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
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