Nursing Elites

1. A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution.
• B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.
• C. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin.
• D. Slow the client's breathing rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The described pattern suggests late decelerations, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion helps reduce uterine contractions, improving placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This intervention is essential to prevent fetal compromise and potential harm during labor. Choice A is incorrect because decreasing the rate of the maintenance IV solution does not directly address the cause of the late decelerations. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the rate of IV oxytocin can worsen uterine contractions, exacerbating the fetal distress. Choice D is incorrect because slowing the client's breathing rate is not indicated in the management of late decelerations during labor.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing four newborns. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. A newborn who is 26 hours old and has erythema toxicum on their face
• B. A newborn who is 32 hours old and has not passed meconium stool
• C. A newborn who is 12 hours old and has pink-tinged urine
• D. A newborn who is 18 hours old and has an axillary temperature of 37.7° C (99.9° F)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An axillary temperature greater than 37.5° C (99.5° F) is above the expected reference range for a newborn and can be an indication of sepsis. Therefore, the healthcare professional should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management to rule out sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are within the expected range of normal findings for newborns. Erythema toxicum is a common and benign rash in newborns, not requiring immediate reporting. Not passing meconium stool within the first 24-48 hours can be normal, and pink-tinged urine can be due to uric acid crystals excretion, which is also common in newborns.

3. A nurse is caring for a preterm newborn who is in an incubator to maintain a neutral thermal environment. The father of the newborn asks the nurse why this is necessary. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Preterm newborns have a smaller body surface area than normal newborns.
• B. The added brown fat layer in a preterm newborn reduces his ability to generate heat.
• C. Preterm newborns lack adequate temperature control mechanisms.
• D. The heat in the incubator rapidly dries the sweat of preterm newborns.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because preterm newborns have immature temperature regulation mechanisms, making it difficult for them to maintain their body temperature. An incubator helps maintain a stable thermal environment. Choice A is incorrect as the body surface area is not the primary reason for needing an incubator. Choice B is incorrect because brown fat in preterm newborns actually helps generate heat. Choice D is incorrect as the purpose of the incubator is not to dry sweat but to regulate the newborn's temperature.

4. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is in her first trimester of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as a risk factor for the development of preeclampsia?

• A. Singleton pregnancy
• B. BMI of 20
• C. Maternal age of 32 years
• D. Pregestational diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pregestational diabetes mellitus is a significant risk factor for the development of preeclampsia in pregnant individuals. Preeclampsia is more common in women with preexisting conditions such as diabetes, hypertension, renal disease, lupus, or rheumatoid arthritis. Singleton pregnancy, a BMI of 20, or maternal age of 32 years are not considered significant risk factors for developing preeclampsia.

5. A healthcare provider is instructing a client who is taking an oral contraceptive about manifestations to report. Which of the following manifestations should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Reduced menstrual flow
• B. Breast tenderness
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a symptom that can indicate a serious side effect of oral contraceptives, such as a potential blood clot in the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are not typically associated with serious side effects of oral contraceptives and are considered normal or common side effects that do not require urgent medical attention.

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