Nursing Elites

1. When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?

• A. Hgb 12.2 g/dL
• B. Urine ketones present
• C. Alanine aminotransferase 20 IU/L
• D. Blood glucose 114 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration, which is a common manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum. Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances due to dehydration. Monitoring for ketonuria helps assess the degree of dehydration in clients with this condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin level, alanine aminotransferase level, and blood glucose level are not specific manifestations of hyperemesis gravidarum. While these laboratory values may be abnormal in some cases, they are not typically used to diagnose or assess the condition.

2. When reviewing postpartum nutrition needs with breastfeeding clients, which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I am glad I can have my morning coffee.
• B. I should take folic acid to increase my milk supply.
• C. I will continue adding 330 calories per day to my diet.
• D. I will continue my calcium supplements because I don't like milk.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients who do not like milk should continue taking calcium supplements to ensure they meet their increased calcium needs while breastfeeding. Calcium is essential for bone health, and during breastfeeding, the mother's calcium requirements are higher. While caffeine in coffee can be consumed in moderation, folic acid does not directly impact milk supply, and the additional 330 calories per day are recommended but not the focus of this question.

3. A client in active labor is irritable, reports the urge to have a bowel movement, vomits, and states, 'I've had enough. I can't do this anymore.' Which of the following stages of labor is the client experiencing?

• A. Second stage
• B. Fourth stage
• C. Transition phase
• D. Latent phase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client in active labor displaying irritability, the urge to have a bowel movement, nausea, vomiting, and expressing frustration indicates that they are in the transition phase of labor. This phase typically occurs just before entering the second stage of labor, marked by intense contractions and cervical dilation from 8 to 10 centimeters. During this phase, the client may feel overwhelmed, exhausted, and may express a sense of losing control. It is a crucial phase indicating that the client is close to delivering the baby. Choice A, the second stage of labor, is characterized by complete cervical dilation and the birth of the baby, not the symptoms described in the scenario. Choice B, the fourth stage, is the period following the delivery of the placenta, not the phase before giving birth. Choice D, the latent phase, is the early phase of labor where contractions are mild and occur at irregular intervals, not the phase described in the scenario.

4. A client who is at 40 weeks gestation and in active labor has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The client's blood pressure reading is 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?

• A. Prepare for a cesarean birth.
• B. Assist the client to an upright position.
• C. Prepare for an immediate vaginal delivery.
• D. Assist the client to turn onto her side.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Turning the client onto her side is the appropriate nursing intervention in this scenario. This position can help improve blood pressure by enhancing venous return, which may aid in increasing perfusion to vital organs. It can also alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, promoting better circulation and supporting blood pressure stabilization during labor. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A cesarean birth is not indicated based on the information provided. Assisting the client to an upright position may worsen her blood pressure due to decreased venous return. Lastly, there is no indication for an immediate vaginal delivery solely based on the client's blood pressure reading.

5. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

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