ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)
- A. Urinary tract infection
- B. Multifetal pregnancy
- C. Oligohydramnios
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Multiple risk factors can contribute to preterm labor, including urinary tract infection, multifetal pregnancy, and oligohydramnios. These factors can lead to the uterus being irritated or overstimulated, potentially triggering early labor. Urinary tract infections can cause inflammation and contractions, multifetal pregnancies have a higher risk of preterm labor due to increased uterine stretching, and oligohydramnios can lead to poor fetal growth and premature contractions. Therefore, clients presenting with these conditions require close monitoring and management to prevent preterm birth. Choices A, B, and C are all correct risk factors for preterm labor, making option D the correct answer.
2. When reinforcing teaching with a group of new parents about proper techniques for bottle feeding, which of the following instructions should be provided?
- A. Burp the newborn at the end of the feeding
- B. Hold the newborn close in a supine position
- C. Keep the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding
- D. Refrigerate any unused formula
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct technique for bottle feeding includes keeping the nipple full of formula throughout the feeding to prevent air from entering the baby's stomach. This helps reduce the risk of the baby swallowing air, which can lead to discomfort and colic. Therefore, maintaining a full nipple during feeding is essential for the baby's comfort and digestion. Option A is incorrect as burping should be done during the feeding to prevent excessive air intake. Option B is incorrect as the baby should be held semi-upright, not in a supine position, to reduce the risk of choking and ear infections. Option D is irrelevant to the feeding process and does not contribute to the baby's well-being.
3. A client who is at 24 weeks of gestation is scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in her teaching?
- A. You will need to drink the glucose solution 1 hour prior to the test.
- B. Limit your carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test.
- C. A blood glucose of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result.
- D. You will need to fast for 8 hours prior to the test.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching for a client scheduled for a 1-hour glucose tolerance test at 24 weeks of gestation is that a blood glucose level of 130 to 140 mg/dL is considered a positive screening result. This range indicates a potential issue with glucose metabolism and would prompt the need for a follow-up 3-hour glucose tolerance test to confirm the diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. In a 1-hour glucose tolerance test, the glucose solution is typically consumed within a specific timeframe before the test, not necessarily 1 hour prior. There is usually no specific requirement to limit carbohydrate intake for 24 hours prior to the test. Fasting for 8 hours prior to the test is more common for a fasting glucose test, not a 1-hour glucose tolerance test.
4. A client who is 2 days postpartum has a saturated perineal pad with bright red lochia containing small clots. What should the nurse document in the client's medical record?
- A. Moderate lochia rubra
- B. Excessive lochia serosa
- C. Light lochia rubra
- D. Scant lochia serosa
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Moderate lochia rubra.' On the second day postpartum, it is normal for lochia to be bright red and contain small clots, indicating moderate lochia rubra. This amount of bleeding is expected as the uterus continues to shed its lining after childbirth. Excessive lochia serosa, light lochia rubra, and scant lochia serosa do not accurately reflect the described scenario. Excessive lochia serosa is more characteristic of a later postpartum period, while light and scant lochia serosa are not consistent with the bright red color and small clots observed in this case.
5. A client who is at 22 weeks of gestation reports concern about the blotchy hyperpigmentation on her forehead. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Tell the client to follow up with a dermatologist.
- B. Explain to the client this is an expected occurrence.
- C. Instruct the client to increase her intake of vitamin D.
- D. Inform the client she might have an allergy to her skin care products.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Chloasma, also known as the mask of pregnancy, is a blotchy, brown hyperpigmentation of the skin over the cheeks, nose, and forehead. It is most common in dark-skinned women and is caused by an increase in melanotropin during pregnancy. This condition typically appears after 16 weeks of gestation and gradually increases until delivery for 50 to 70% of women. The nurse should reassure the client that this is an expected occurrence, which usually fades after delivery. Therefore, explaining to the client that this is an expected occurrence is the appropriate action in this situation. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because chloasma is a common skin change during pregnancy and does not require a referral to a dermatologist, an increase in vitamin D intake, or suspicion of an allergy to skin care products.
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