Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who reports manifestations of preterm labor. Which of the following findings are risk factors for this condition? (Select all that apply)

• A. Urinary tract infection
• B. Multifetal pregnancy
• C. Oligohydramnios
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the Above. Multiple risk factors can contribute to preterm labor, including urinary tract infection, multifetal pregnancy, and oligohydramnios. These factors can lead to the uterus being irritated or overstimulated, potentially triggering early labor. Urinary tract infections can cause inflammation and contractions, multifetal pregnancies have a higher risk of preterm labor due to increased uterine stretching, and oligohydramnios can lead to poor fetal growth and premature contractions. Therefore, clients presenting with these conditions require close monitoring and management to prevent preterm birth. Choices A, B, and C are all correct risk factors for preterm labor, making option D the correct answer.

2. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

3. When advising a woman considering pregnancy on nutritional needs to reduce the risk of giving birth to a newborn with a neural tube defect, what information should the nurse include?

• A. Limit alcohol consumption.
• B. Increase intake of iron-rich foods.
• C. Consume foods fortified with folic acid.
• D. Avoid foods containing aspartame.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Consume foods fortified with folic acid. Folic acid plays a crucial role in preventing neural tube defects. It is advised to consume foods fortified with folic acid or take a supplement containing at least 400 micrograms of folic acid daily. This nutrient is essential for the developing fetus and can significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects when taken before and during early pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. While limiting alcohol consumption is important during pregnancy, it is not directly related to reducing the risk of neural tube defects. Increasing intake of iron-rich foods is essential for preventing anemia but is not specifically linked to neural tube defects. Avoiding foods containing aspartame is generally recommended, but it is not directly related to reducing the risk of neural tube defects.

4. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

5. A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Limit the amount of time the infant nurses on each breast.
• B. Nurse the infant only on the unaffected breast until resolved.
• C. Completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump.
• D. Wear a tight-fitting bra until lactation has ceased.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump to prevent milk stasis, which can exacerbate mastitis. By ensuring proper drainage of the affected breast, the client can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because limiting feeding time can lead to inadequate drainage, potentially worsening the condition. Choice B is incorrect as it can cause engorgement in the unaffected breast, leading to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a tight-fitting bra can worsen symptoms by putting pressure on the affected breast, hindering proper drainage and exacerbating mastitis.

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