Nursing Elites

1. A client at 8 weeks of gestation with iron deficiency anemia is prescribed iron supplements. Which beverage should the nurse reinforce the client to take the supplements with for better absorption?

• A. Ice water
• B. Low-fat or whole milk
• C. Tea or coffee
• D. Orange juice

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Orange juice.' Orange juice is recommended to be taken with iron supplements because vitamin C present in orange juice enhances iron absorption, improving the effectiveness of the supplement. It is essential to take iron supplements with a source of vitamin C to optimize iron absorption and address iron deficiency anemia. Ice water (Choice A), low-fat or whole milk (Choice B), and tea or coffee (Choice C) are not ideal choices to take with iron supplements as they do not contain vitamin C, which is crucial for enhancing iron absorption.

2. A client who is 12 hours postpartum has a fundus located two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus, deviated to the right of the midline, and less firm than previously noted. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the client in a side-lying position.
• B. Assist the client to the bathroom to void.
• C. Obtain a prescription for IV oxytocin.
• D. Administer methylergonovine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's fundus findings indicate a distended bladder, which can lead to uterine atony. Assisting the client to the bathroom to void is essential as a distended bladder can inhibit the uterus from contracting normally. This action can help the uterus contract effectively and prevent complications such as postpartum hemorrhage. Placing the client in a side-lying position, obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin, or administering methylergonovine are not the priority actions in this situation. Placing the client in a side-lying position might be indicated for fundal displacement, but it is not the priority here. Obtaining a prescription for IV oxytocin and administering methylergonovine are interventions for managing uterine atony, which is not the primary issue in this case; the priority is addressing the distended bladder.

3. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased platelet count
• B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
• C. Decreased megakaryocytes
• D. Increased WBC

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.

4. A client who is breastfeeding and has mastitis is receiving teaching from the nurse. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Limit the amount of time the infant nurses on each breast.
• B. Nurse the infant only on the unaffected breast until resolved.
• C. Completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump.
• D. Wear a tight-fitting bra until lactation has ceased.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to completely empty each breast at each feeding or use a pump to prevent milk stasis, which can exacerbate mastitis. By ensuring proper drainage of the affected breast, the client can help alleviate symptoms and promote healing. Choice A is incorrect because limiting feeding time can lead to inadequate drainage, potentially worsening the condition. Choice B is incorrect as it can cause engorgement in the unaffected breast, leading to further complications. Choice D is incorrect as wearing a tight-fitting bra can worsen symptoms by putting pressure on the affected breast, hindering proper drainage and exacerbating mastitis.

5. During a client's active labor, a healthcare provider notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. What is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?

• A. The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior position.
• B. The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
• C. The posterior fontanel is palpable.
• D. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: At 0 station, the lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines, indicating that the presenting part of the baby has engaged in the pelvis. This position is a significant milestone in labor progress and suggests that the baby is descending into the birth canal for delivery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A refers to the fetal head position, choice B describes the largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet (which is not related to station), and choice C refers to the palpability of the posterior fontanel (which is not relevant to station in labor).

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