ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
- B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
- C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
- D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.
2. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?
- A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
- B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
- C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
- D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.
3. A client who is postpartum received methylergonovine. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication was effective?
- A. Increase in blood pressure
- B. Fundus firm to palpation
- C. Increase in lochia
- D. Report of absent breast pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Methylergonovine is used to prevent or treat postpartum hemorrhage by contracting the uterus. A firm fundus indicates effective uterine contraction and less bleeding. Therefore, the correct answer is a firm fundus to palpation. The increase in blood pressure (Choice A) is not a typical finding associated with the effectiveness of methylergonovine. Increase in lochia (Choice C) may indicate excessive bleeding rather than the medication's effectiveness. Absence of breast pain (Choice D) is not directly related to the medication's effectiveness in treating postpartum hemorrhage.
4. A healthcare provider in an antepartum clinic is collecting data from a client who has a TORCH infection. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect? (Select all that apply)
- A. Joint pain
- B. Malaise
- C. Rash
- D. Tender lymph nodes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A TORCH infection can cause joint pain, malaise, rash, and tender lymph nodes. These findings are characteristic of TORCH infections and are important to recognize in pregnant individuals as they can have serious implications for both the mother and the fetus. While joint pain, malaise, and rash can be present in TORCH infections, tender lymph nodes are a common finding that the healthcare provider should expect. Tender lymph nodes are often associated with the inflammatory response to infection and can be palpated during a physical examination. Therefore, in this scenario, the healthcare provider should anticipate the presence of tender lymph nodes in a client with a TORCH infection, making option D the correct answer.
5. A client who is at 7 weeks of gestation is experiencing nausea and vomiting in the morning. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Eat crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed
- B. Awaken during the night to eat a snack
- C. Skip breakfast and eat lunch after nausea has subsided
- D. Eat a large evening meal
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting in the morning are common symptoms. Eating crackers or plain toast before getting out of bed can help manage morning nausea by stabilizing blood sugar levels. This simple and easily digestible snack can alleviate symptoms by providing some sustenance to the stomach before fully waking up and moving around. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Waking up during the night to eat a snack may disrupt sleep patterns, skipping breakfast can worsen symptoms by allowing the stomach to remain empty for longer periods, and eating a large evening meal may exacerbate morning nausea due to increased stomach contents.
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