a nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant the provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy which of the
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ATI LPN

Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and ballottement are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during a vaginal examination. Recognizing these signs is essential for healthcare providers in assessing pregnancy. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they are all probable signs of pregnancy. Choice D is the correct answer as it includes all the expected findings.

2. A client at 39 weeks of gestation in a prenatal clinic asks about signs preceding labor. Which of the following should the nurse identify as a sign that precedes labor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A surge of energy is a common sign that precedes labor. This burst of energy, often referred to as the 'nesting instinct,' is believed to occur as the body prepares for labor, prompting the individual to undertake tasks to prepare for the arrival of the baby. Decreased vaginal discharge is not a typical sign preceding labor. Urinary retention is not a sign that precedes labor and may indicate another issue. Weight gain of 0.5 to 1.5 kg is not a specific sign of impending labor.

3. When caring for a client suspected of having hyperemesis gravidarum, which finding is a manifestation of this condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urine ketones present. The presence of urine ketones indicates dehydration, which is a common manifestation of hyperemesis gravidarum. Hyperemesis gravidarum is characterized by severe nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and electrolyte imbalances due to dehydration. Monitoring for ketonuria helps assess the degree of dehydration in clients with this condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin level, alanine aminotransferase level, and blood glucose level are not specific manifestations of hyperemesis gravidarum. While these laboratory values may be abnormal in some cases, they are not typically used to diagnose or assess the condition.

4. A newborn is small for gestational age (SGA). Which of the following findings is associated with this condition?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Wide skull sutures are a common finding in newborns who are small for gestational age (SGA) due to reduced intrauterine growth. This occurs because the skull bones do not grow at the same rate as the brain, leading to wider sutures. Moist skin, a protruding abdomen, and a gray umbilical cord are not typically associated with being small for gestational age.

5. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

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