Nursing Elites

1. During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?

• A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
• C. Kleihauer-Betke test
• D. Indirect Coombs' test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is a test used to evaluate fetal lung maturity. An L/S ratio greater than 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity. This test helps in determining the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used in screening for neural tube defects, not for assessing lung maturity. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not fetal lung maturity. The Indirect Coombs' test is used to identify the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that could attack fetal red blood cells, not for assessing lung maturity.

2. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is caring for a client who is having a difficult, prolonged labor with severe backache. Which of the following contributing causes should the nurse identify?

• A. Fetal attitude is in general flexion.
• B. Fetal lie is longitudinal.
• C. Maternal pelvis is gynecoid.
• D. Fetal position is persistent occiput posterior.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In a persistent occiput posterior position, the baby's head presses against the mother's spine, causing prolonged labor and severe backache. This position can lead to difficulties in labor progress and increase discomfort for the mother. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the client's difficult, prolonged labor with severe backache. Fetal attitude, fetal lie, and maternal pelvis type may affect labor, but in this scenario, the persistent occiput posterior fetal position is the primary contributing cause for the client's symptoms.

3. A pregnant client is learning about Kegel exercises in the third trimester. Which statement signifies understanding of the teaching?

• A. These exercises facilitate preventing constipation.
• B. These exercises aid pelvic muscle stretching during birth.
• C. They assist in decreasing backaches.
• D. They can prevent additional stretch marks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Kegel exercises are beneficial during pregnancy to help strengthen pelvic muscles, which is crucial for childbirth. Pelvic muscle stretching during birth is a key aspect of labor, making choice B the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Kegel exercises primarily focus on strengthening pelvic floor muscles to support the uterus, bladder, and bowel, aiding in labor and delivery. They are not directly related to preventing constipation, decreasing backaches, or preventing stretch marks.

4. A client in labor is having contractions 4 minutes apart. Which of the following patterns should the nurse expect on the fetal monitoring tracing?

• A. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 4-minute rest between contractions
• B. A contraction that lasts 4 minutes followed by a period of relaxation
• C. Contractions that last for 60 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions
• D. Contractions that last 45 seconds each with a 3-minute rest between contractions

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When contractions are 4 minutes apart, it means there are 4 minutes from the start of one contraction to the start of the next. If each contraction lasts 60 seconds, there will be a 3-minute rest period between contractions. This allows for adequate uterine relaxation and recovery before the next contraction begins. Choice A is incorrect because it suggests a 4-minute rest between contractions, which is not accurate. Choice B is incorrect as contractions lasting 4 minutes continuously without rest would be concerning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests 45-second contractions instead of 60-second contractions.

5. A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Cholecystitis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Migraine headaches
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cholecystitis is a correct answer. A history of gallbladder disease, such as cholecystitis, is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. Hypertension is a correct answer. Hypertension is also a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications. Migraine headaches are a correct answer. A history of migraine headaches is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives, especially for those with aura. Selecting 'All of the above' is correct as all the mentioned conditions (cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches) are contraindications for oral contraceptives. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are incorrect choices as they are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives.

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