ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?
- A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
- B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
- C. Kleihauer-Betke test
- D. Indirect Coombs' test
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is a test used to evaluate fetal lung maturity. An L/S ratio greater than 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity. This test helps in determining the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used in screening for neural tube defects, not for assessing lung maturity. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not fetal lung maturity. The Indirect Coombs' test is used to identify the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that could attack fetal red blood cells, not for assessing lung maturity.
2. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care for a client who is experiencing a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following findings is expected with this condition?
- A. No alteration in menses
- B. Transvaginal ultrasound indicating a fetus in the uterus
- C. Blood progesterone greater than the expected reference range
- D. Report of severe shoulder pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe shoulder pain is a common finding in clients with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy due to referred pain from diaphragmatic irritation caused by blood in the abdominal cavity. This pain is known as Kehr's sign and is often experienced in the shoulder due to irritation of the phrenic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A ruptured ectopic pregnancy typically presents with symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, and signs of shock, rather than no alteration in menses, a fetus in the uterus, or elevated blood progesterone levels.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who is pregnant. The provider indicated the client exhibits probable signs of pregnancy. Which of the following findings should the provider expect? (Select all that apply)
- A. Chadwick's sign
- B. Goodell's sign
- C. Ballottement
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chadwick's sign, Goodell's sign, and ballottement are probable signs of pregnancy. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vaginal mucosa. Goodell's sign is the softening of the cervix due to increased vascularity. Ballottement is the rebound of the fetus when the cervix is tapped during a vaginal examination. Recognizing these signs is essential for healthcare providers in assessing pregnancy. Therefore, all of the above choices are correct as they are all probable signs of pregnancy. Choice D is the correct answer as it includes all the expected findings.
4. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
- B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
- C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
- D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.
5. A client in the delivery room just delivered a newborn, and the nurse is planning to promote parent-infant bonding. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Encourage the parents to touch and explore the newborn's features
- B. Limit noise and interruptions in the delivery room
- C. Place the newborn at the client's breast
- D. Position the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Positioning the newborn skin-to-skin on the client's chest is the priority action to promote warmth, regulate the newborn's heart rate and breathing, and enhance parent-infant bonding. This method facilitates early bonding, stabilizes the baby's temperature, and encourages breastfeeding initiation. Encouraging parents to touch and explore the newborn's features is important but not the priority at this moment. Limiting noise and interruptions can be beneficial but not as crucial as skin-to-skin contact for bonding. Placing the newborn at the client's breast is essential for breastfeeding but should come after the initial skin-to-skin contact for bonding and temperature regulation.
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