Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is admitting a client who has severe preeclampsia at 35 weeks of gestation and is reviewing the provider's orders. Which of the following orders requires clarification?

• A. Assess deep tendon reflexes every hour.
• B. Obtain a daily weight.
• C. Continuous fetal monitoring
• D. Ambulate twice daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Ambulating twice daily is not recommended for a client with severe preeclampsia. Clients with severe preeclampsia are at risk for seizures and should be on bed rest to prevent complications. Ambulation can increase blood pressure and the risk of seizure activity in these clients. Assessing deep tendon reflexes, obtaining a daily weight, and continuous fetal monitoring are all appropriate and important interventions for a client with severe preeclampsia to monitor for signs of worsening condition and fetal well-being.

2. During an assessment, a client at 26 weeks of gestation presents with which of the following clinical manifestations that should be reported to the provider?

• A. Leukorrhea
• B. Supine hypotension
• C. Periodic numbness of the fingers
• D. Decreased urine output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During pregnancy, decreased urine output can be indicative of decreased renal perfusion and impaired fetal well-being. It can also be a sign of preeclampsia when associated with symptoms like increased blood pressure, proteinuria, and decreased fetal activity. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report this finding to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Leukorrhea is a common finding in pregnancy and not typically concerning. Supine hypotension and periodic numbness of the fingers can be managed by changing positions or adjusting posture and are not as urgent as decreased urine output in this context.

3. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
• B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
• C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
• D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer prophylactic eye ointment to a newborn to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?

• A. Ofloxacin
• B. Nystatin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Ceftriaxone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is the medication of choice for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum, an eye infection in newborns caused by exposure to gonorrhea or chlamydia during birth. Erythromycin helps prevent the transmission of these bacteria from the mother to the baby during delivery, protecting the newborn's eyes from potential infection. Ofloxacin, Nystatin, and Ceftriaxone are not indicated for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for treating eye infections in adults, Nystatin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, and Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic used for various bacterial infections, but not for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum.

5. A client in the antepartum unit is at 36 weeks of gestation and has pregnancy-induced hypertension. Suddenly, the client reports continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. The nurse should suspect which of the following complications?

• A. Placenta previa
• B. Prolapsed cord
• C. Incompetent cervix
• D. Abruptio placentae

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, which can cause continuous abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. In this scenario, the client's symptoms of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding are indicative of abruptio placentae, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent potential complications for both the client and the fetus. Placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, not sudden abdominal pain. Prolapsed cord presents with visible umbilical cord protruding from the vagina and is not associated with abruptio placentae symptoms. Incompetent cervix typically manifests as painless cervical dilation in the second trimester, not sudden abdominal pain and bleeding as seen in abruptio placentae.

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