Nursing Elites

1. A client is being discharged after childbirth. At 4 weeks postpartum, the client should contact the provider for which of the following client findings?

• A. Scant, non-odorous white vaginal discharge
• B. Uterine cramping during breastfeeding
• C. Sore nipple with cracks and fissures
• D. Decreased response with sexual activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sore nipples with cracks and fissures should be reported to the provider as this can indicate improper breastfeeding techniques or infection, which requires medical evaluation and intervention to prevent further complications such as mastitis or decreased milk supply. Scant, non-odorous white vaginal discharge is a normal finding postpartum. Uterine cramping during breastfeeding is also common due to oxytocin release. Decreased response with sexual activity may be expected at 4 weeks postpartum due to hormonal changes and fatigue, but it is not typically a concern that needs immediate medical attention.

2. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?

• A. Check the client's temperature.
• B. Observe for uterine contractions.
• C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
• D. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.

3. A client who is at 10 weeks of gestation reports abdominal pain and moderate vaginal bleeding, with a tentative diagnosis of inevitable abortion. Which of the following nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care?

• A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• B. Offer the option to view products of conception.
• C. Instruct the client to increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Maintain the client on bed rest.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of inevitable abortion, offering the option to view products of conception can assist in emotional healing and closure for the client. This can provide a sense of acknowledgment and closure for the loss experienced, aiding in the grieving process. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (choice A) is not directly related to the emotional and psychological support needed during an inevitable abortion. Instructing the client to increase potassium-rich foods (choice C) may not be a priority in this situation. Maintaining the client on bed rest (choice D) may be indicated in some cases but does not address the emotional aspect of the situation.

4. A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)

• A. Respirations less than 12/min
• B. Urinary output less than 25 mL/hr
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity include respirations less than 12/min, urinary output less than 25 mL/hr, and decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate potential overdose of magnesium sulfate and require immediate attention to prevent further complications. Reporting these signs promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as all the listed findings are indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choices A, B, and C individually represent different signs of toxicity, making them incorrect on their own. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in identifying and reporting all these signs to prevent adverse outcomes.

5. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

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