ATI LPN
ATI Maternal Newborn
1. A client is being discharged after childbirth. At 4 weeks postpartum, the client should contact the provider for which of the following client findings?
- A. Scant, non-odorous white vaginal discharge
- B. Uterine cramping during breastfeeding
- C. Sore nipple with cracks and fissures
- D. Decreased response with sexual activity
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Sore nipples with cracks and fissures should be reported to the provider as this can indicate improper breastfeeding techniques or infection, which requires medical evaluation and intervention to prevent further complications such as mastitis or decreased milk supply. Scant, non-odorous white vaginal discharge is a normal finding postpartum. Uterine cramping during breastfeeding is also common due to oxytocin release. Decreased response with sexual activity may be expected at 4 weeks postpartum due to hormonal changes and fatigue, but it is not typically a concern that needs immediate medical attention.
2. After an amniotomy, what is the priority nursing action?
- A. Observe color and consistency of fluid
- B. Assess the fetal heart rate pattern
- C. Assess the client's temperature
- D. Evaluate the client for the presence of chills and increased uterine tenderness using palpation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After an amniotomy, the priority nursing action is to assess the fetal heart rate pattern. This is crucial to monitor for any signs of fetal distress, as changes in the fetal heart rate could indicate potential complications related to the procedure. Observing the color and consistency of the fluid (Choice A) is important but not the priority over assessing fetal well-being. Assessing the client's temperature (Choice C) and evaluating the client for chills and increased uterine tenderness (Choice D) are not immediate priorities following an amniotomy.
3. A client has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate IV. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify and report as signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity? (Select all that apply)
- A. Respirations less than 12/min
- B. Urinary output less than 25 mL/hr
- C. Decreased level of consciousness
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity include respirations less than 12/min, urinary output less than 25 mL/hr, and decreased level of consciousness. These signs indicate potential overdose of magnesium sulfate and require immediate attention to prevent further complications. Reporting these signs promptly is crucial to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer as all the listed findings are indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choices A, B, and C individually represent different signs of toxicity, making them incorrect on their own. Therefore, the nurse should be vigilant in identifying and reporting all these signs to prevent adverse outcomes.
4. A client is postpartum and has idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased platelet count
- B. Increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
- C. Decreased megakaryocytes
- D. Increased WBC
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is characterized by an autoimmune response that leads to a decreased platelet count. This condition increases the risk of bleeding due to the low platelet levels. Monitoring the platelet count is crucial in managing ITP, as it helps determine the risk of bleeding and guides treatment decisions. Therefore, the correct finding to expect in a client with ITP is a decreased platelet count. Choice B, an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), is not typically associated with ITP. Choice C, decreased megakaryocytes, may be seen in conditions like aplastic anemia but are not a typical finding in ITP. Choice D, an increased white blood cell count (WBC), is not a characteristic feature of ITP.
5. A client with hyperemesis gravidarum is receiving dietary teaching. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will eat foods that appeal to my taste instead of trying to balance my meals.
- B. I will avoid having a snack at bedtime.
- C. I will have 8 ounces of hot tea with each meal.
- D. I will pair my sweets with a starch instead of eating them alone.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperemesis gravidarum, where there is severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, it is essential for the client to eat foods that appeal to their taste to prevent further nausea. Balancing meals may not be a priority initially if the client is struggling to keep any food down. Choice B is unrelated to managing hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice C, having hot tea with each meal, may not necessarily address the issue of taste preferences. Choice D, pairing sweets with a starch, is not as relevant as choosing foods appealing to taste for managing hyperemesis gravidarum.
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