Nursing Elites

1. A client in active labor is being prepared for epidural analgesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Have the client sit upright on the bed with legs crossed.
• B. Administer a 500 mL bolus of lactated Ringer's solution prior to induction.
• C. Inform the client that the anesthetic effect will last for approximately 2 hours.
• D. Obtain a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to induction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Obtaining a 30-minute electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) strip prior to epidural analgesia is crucial to establish a baseline for fetal heart rate and uterine activity. This baseline helps in monitoring fetal well-being during labor and assessing the effect of analgesia on the baby. It enables the healthcare team to identify any changes in the fetal heart rate pattern and uterine contractions, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because having the client sit upright with legs crossed is not necessary for epidural placement, administering a bolus of lactated Ringer's solution is not typically done before epidural analgesia, and the duration of the anesthetic effect varies and is not accurately 2 hours.

2. A client at 42 weeks of gestation is having an ultrasound. For which of the following conditions should the nurse prepare for an amnioinfusion? (Select all that apply)

• A. Oligohydramnios
• B. Hydramnios
• C. Fetal cord compression
• D. Polyhydramnios

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is "Oligohydramnios". Oligohydramnios, which refers to low amniotic fluid volume, may necessitate amnioinfusion to address the deficiency. Fetal cord compression is another indication for amnioinfusion as it can help alleviate pressure on the umbilical cord. Hydramnios or polyhydramnios, conversely, involve an excess of amniotic fluid and do not typically require amnioinfusion. Therefore, choices B, C, and D are incorrect in this context.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer prophylactic eye ointment to a newborn to prevent ophthalmia neonatorum. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering?

• A. Ofloxacin
• B. Nystatin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Ceftriaxone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin eye ointment is the medication of choice for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum, an eye infection in newborns caused by exposure to gonorrhea or chlamydia during birth. Erythromycin helps prevent the transmission of these bacteria from the mother to the baby during delivery, protecting the newborn's eyes from potential infection. Ofloxacin, Nystatin, and Ceftriaxone are not indicated for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum. Ofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic used for treating eye infections in adults, Nystatin is an antifungal medication used for fungal infections, and Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin antibiotic used for various bacterial infections, but not for preventing ophthalmia neonatorum.

4. A nurse is preparing to perform Leopold maneuvers for a client. Identify the sequence the nurse should follow.

• A. Palpate the fundus to identify the fetal part.
• B. Determine the location of the fetal back.
• C. Palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet.
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for the nurse to follow when performing Leopold maneuvers is as follows: first, palpate the client's fundus to identify the fetal part, second, determine the location of the fetal back, third, palpate for the fetal part presenting at the inlet, and finally, palpate the cephalic prominence to identify the attitude of the head. Therefore, option D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer as it includes all the steps in the correct sequence. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not represent the complete sequence required for performing Leopold maneuvers.

5. A patient on the labor and delivery unit is having induction of labor with oxytocin administered through a secondary IV line. Uterine contractions occur every 2 minutes, last 90 seconds, and are strong to palpation. The baseline fetal heart rate is 150/min, with uniform decelerations beginning at the peak of the contraction and a return to baseline after the contraction is over. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the rate of infusion of the maintenance IV solution.
• B. Discontinue the infusion of the IV oxytocin.
• C. Increase the rate of infusion of the IV oxytocin.
• D. Slow the client's breathing rate.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The described pattern suggests late decelerations, indicating uteroplacental insufficiency. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion helps reduce uterine contractions, improving placental blood flow and fetal oxygenation. This intervention is essential to prevent fetal compromise and potential harm during labor. Choice A is incorrect because decreasing the rate of the maintenance IV solution does not directly address the cause of the late decelerations. Choice C is incorrect because increasing the rate of IV oxytocin can worsen uterine contractions, exacerbating the fetal distress. Choice D is incorrect because slowing the client's breathing rate is not indicated in the management of late decelerations during labor.

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