ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Proctored Exam
1. A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. You will lie on your right side during the procedure.
- B. You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure.
- C. You should empty your bladder before the procedure.
- D. The test is performed to determine gestational age.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should advise the client to empty her bladder before an amniocentesis to minimize the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. This precaution helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure by reducing potential complications related to bladder puncture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lying on the right side, fasting for 24 hours, and determining gestational age are not relevant instructions for an amniocentesis procedure.
2. A nurse is admitting a term newborn following a cesarean birth. The nurse observes that the newborn's skin is slightly yellow. This finding indicates the newborn is experiencing a complication related to which of the following?
- A. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility
- B. Absence of vitamin K
- C. Physiologic jaundice
- D. Maternal cocaine abuse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The yellow skin observed in the newborn suggests jaundice. Maternal/newborn blood group incompatibility is a common cause of jaundice in newborns. This occurs when the mother and baby have different blood types, leading to the baby's immune system attacking the red blood cells, causing jaundice. Physiologic jaundice, which is a normal process due to the breakdown of red blood cells in newborns, typically presents after the first 24 hours of life. Absence of vitamin K leads to bleeding issues, not jaundice. Maternal cocaine abuse does not directly cause jaundice in newborns.
3. A client who is pregnant and has phenylketonuria (PKU) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?
- A. Peanut butter
- B. Potatoes
- C. Apple juice
- D. Broccoli
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) have difficulty breaking down phenylalanine, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods like peanut butter. Therefore, clients with PKU should avoid foods high in phenylalanine, such as peanut butter, to prevent adverse effects on their health. Choices B, C, and D are not typically high in phenylalanine and do not pose the same risk to individuals with PKU as peanut butter.
4. A charge nurse on the postpartum unit is observing a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to administer pain medication to a client. The charge nurse should intervene when the newly licensed nurse uses which of the following secondary identifiers to identify the client?
- A. The client's room number
- B. The client's telephone number
- C. The client's birth date
- D. The client's medical record number
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using the client's room number as a secondary identifier is not an appropriate method for client identification in healthcare settings. It can lead to confusion and potential errors, especially in a busy environment like a postpartum unit. Room numbers are not unique to individual patients and can change frequently. Instead, healthcare providers should use more reliable and specific identifiers like the client's name, medical record number, or date of birth to ensure accurate identification and safe administration of medications. Choices B, C, and D are more appropriate secondary identifiers for client identification as they are more specific and less prone to errors than room numbers.
5. A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate via a continuous IV infusion. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every hour.
- B. Restrict the total hourly intake to 200 mL.
- C. Monitor the FHR continuously.
- D. Administer protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate via continuous IV infusion, it is crucial to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) continuously. Magnesium sulfate is given to prevent seizures and is considered a high-alert medication that requires close monitoring, especially of FHR and uterine contractions. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every hour, as in choice A, is important but not as crucial as continuous FHR monitoring. Restricting the total hourly intake to 200 mL, as in choice B, is not a relevant intervention for a client receiving magnesium sulfate. Administering protamine sulfate for manifestations of toxicity, as in choice D, is incorrect as protamine sulfate is not the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
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