Nursing Elites

1. A client in a family planning clinic requests oral contraceptives. Which of the following findings in the client's history should be recognized as contraindications to oral contraceptives? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Cholecystitis
• B. Hypertension
• C. Migraine headaches
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cholecystitis is a correct answer. A history of gallbladder disease, such as cholecystitis, is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives. Hypertension is a correct answer. Hypertension is also a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of complications. Migraine headaches are a correct answer. A history of migraine headaches is a contraindication for the use of oral contraceptives, especially for those with aura. Selecting 'All of the above' is correct as all the mentioned conditions (cholecystitis, hypertension, and migraine headaches) are contraindications for oral contraceptives. Human papillomavirus and anxiety disorder are incorrect choices as they are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives.

2. When educating a pregnant client about potential complications, which manifestation should the nurse emphasize reporting to the provider promptly?

• A. Vaginal bleeding
• B. Swelling of the ankles
• C. Heartburn after eating
• D. Lightheadedness when lying on back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vaginal bleeding during pregnancy is a concerning sign that could indicate serious complications like miscarriage or placental issues. Prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management to ensure the best outcomes for both the mother and the baby. Swelling of the ankles (choice B), heartburn after eating (choice C), and lightheadedness when lying on the back (choice D) are common discomforts during pregnancy but are not typically associated with serious complications that require immediate attention.

3. During ambulation to the bathroom, a postpartum client experiences a gush of dark red blood that soon stops. On data collection, a nurse finds the uterus to be firm, midline, and at the level of the umbilicus. Which of the following findings should the nurse interpret this data as being?

• A. Evidence of a possible vaginal hematoma
• B. An indication of a cervical or perineal laceration
• C. A normal postpartum discharge of lochia
• D. Abnormally excessive lochia rubra flow

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should interpret this data as a normal postpartum discharge of lochia. Lochia is the normal vaginal discharge after childbirth, and the gush of dark red blood upon ambulation is typical due to the pooling of blood in the vagina when lying down, which is then released upon standing. The firm, midline uterus at the level of the umbilicus indicates normal involution of the uterus postpartum. Therefore, this scenario is consistent with the expected postpartum physiological changes rather than complications like hematoma, lacerations, or abnormal excessive bleeding. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the described findings are more indicative of normal postpartum processes rather than complications such as vaginal hematoma, lacerations, or excessive bleeding.

4. A client who is at 6 weeks of gestation with her first pregnancy asks the nurse when she can expect to experience quickening. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. This will occur during the last trimester of pregnancy.
• B. This will happen by the end of the first trimester of pregnancy.
• C. This will occur between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy.
• D. This will happen once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Quickening, which is the first perception of fetal movements by the mother, typically occurs between the fourth and fifth months of pregnancy, around 18-20 weeks of gestation. Choice C is correct as it provides the client with accurate information about the expected timing of this significant milestone in her pregnancy. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because quickening does not happen during the last trimester, by the end of the first trimester, or once the uterus begins to rise out of the pelvis. The correct timeframe for quickening is during the second trimester, specifically between the fourth and fifth months.

5. While caring for a newborn undergoing phototherapy to treat hyperbilirubinemia, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Cover the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask while under the phototherapy light.
• B. Keep the newborn in a shirt while under the phototherapy light.
• C. Apply a light moisturizing lotion to the newborn's skin.
• D. Turn and reposition the newborn every 4 hours while undergoing phototherapy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is crucial to cover the newborn's eyes with an opaque eye mask to prevent damage to the retinas and corneas from the phototherapy light. The eyes are particularly sensitive to the light used in phototherapy, and shielding them helps protect the newborn's delicate eyes from potential harm. Choice B is incorrect because the newborn should be undressed to maximize skin exposure to the phototherapy light. Choice C is incorrect because lotions or oils can interfere with the effectiveness of phototherapy. Choice D is incorrect because the newborn should be kept as still as possible to maximize exposure to the light.

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